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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

B.

To centralize device information storage

C.

To implement centralized user account management

D.

To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network Answer: A

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Questions 5

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

200-301 Question 6

Options:

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Questions 7

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 7

Options:

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Questions 8

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

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Questions 9

A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?

Options:

A.

high bandwidth usage

B.

a physical cable fault

C.

a speed mismatch

D.

a cable that is too long

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Questions 10

Drag and drop the IPv6 addresses from the left onto the corresponding address types on the right.

200-301 Question 10

Options:

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Questions 11

Drag and drop the statements about AAA services firm the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 11

Options:

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Questions 12

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 12

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

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Questions 13

A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

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Questions 14

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

Options:

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 15

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 15

B)

200-301 Question 15

C)

200-301 Question 15

D)

200-301 Question 15

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 16

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

200-301 Question 16

Options:

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Questions 17

What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?

Options:

A.

decreases overall network complexity

B.

limits data queries to the control plane

C.

reduces cost

D.

offloads the creation of virtual machines to the data plane

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Questions 18

Which enhancements were implemented as part of WPA3?

Options:

A.

802.1x authentication and AES-128 encryption

B.

TKIP encryption improving WEP and per-packet keying

C.

AES-64 m personal mode and AES-128 in enterprise mode

D.

forward secrecy and SAE in personal mode for secure initial key exchange

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Questions 19

After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

200-301 Question 19

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 20

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

policing

C.

CBWFQ

D.

LLQ

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Questions 21

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

200-301 Question 21

B)

200-301 Question 21

C)

200-301 Question 21

D)

200-301 Question 21

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 22

A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Enable Session Timeout option and set the value to 3600.

B.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 10.

C.

Enable the Client Exclusion option and set the value to 3600.

D.

Enable the Wi-Fi Direct Clients Policy option.

E.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients Per AP Radio value to 10.

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Questions 23

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.

1 Hz signal

B.

1 GHz signal

C.

60 Hz signal

D.

60 GHz signal

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Questions 24

What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WPA3 um AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses SAE

B.

WPA2 uses 1 M-bit key encryption and WPA3 requires 256-brt key encryption

C.

WPA3 uses AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses TKIP WPA3 uses

D.

SAE tor stronger protection than WPA2 which uses AES

E.

WPA2 uses 12B-M key encryption and WPA3 supports 128 bit and 192 bit key encryption

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Questions 25

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

B.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

C.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter.

D.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter.

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 26

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

Options:

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

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Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 27An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

Options:

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 265 255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

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Questions 28

Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

Options:

A.

full mesh

B.

Point-to-point

C.

hub-and-spoke

D.

router-on-a-stick

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Questions 29

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 29

Options:

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Questions 30

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

data center network pokey con

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address cool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automaton of devices and services

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Questions 31

NO: 222

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 31

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

Options:

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

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Questions 32

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 32

Options:

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Questions 33

200-301 Question 33

A)

200-301 Question 33

B)

200-301 Question 33

C)

200-301 Question 33

D)

200-301 Question 33

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 34

A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 34

B)

200-301 Question 34

C)

200-301 Question 34

D)

200-301 Question 34

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 35

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

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Questions 36

What is the function of northbound API?

Options:

A.

It upgrades software and restores files.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

D.

It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.

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Questions 37

Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.

200-301 Question 37

Options:

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Questions 38

Refer to the exhibit.

When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?

Options:

A.

Null0

B.

VIan58

C.

Vlan60

D.

VIan59

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Questions 39

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

200-301 Question 39

Options:

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Questions 40

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.

Comply with PCI regulations

C.

Comply with local law

D.

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

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Questions 41

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 41

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

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Questions 42

It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?

Options:

A.

email system patches

B.

physical access control

C.

software firewall enabled on all PCs

D.

user awareness training

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Questions 43

Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU

B.

configuration files backed by physical resources from the Hypervisor

C.

applications running on the Hypervisor

D.

processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS

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Questions 44

Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

200-301 Question 44

Options:

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Questions 45

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 45

What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

Options:

A.

255.255.248.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.240.0

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Questions 46

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Options:

A.

AES

B.

TKIP

C.

PEAP

D.

EAP

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Questions 47

Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

200-301 Question 47

Options:

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Questions 48

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 48

All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP electronics, which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

MDF-DC-4:08:E0:19: 08:B3:19

B.

MDF-DC-3:08:0E:18::1A:3C:9D

C.

MDF-DC-08:0E:18:22:05:97

D.

MDF-DC-1:DB:E:44:02:54:79

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Questions 49

Which type of hypervisor operates without an underlying OS to host virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 12

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Questions 50

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Questions 51

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

200-301 Question 51

Options:

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Questions 52

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 52

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

Options:

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

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Questions 53

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Questions 54

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

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Questions 55

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

it supports protocol discovery

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Questions 56

200-301 Question 56

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configured on the right. Not all commands are used.

200-301 Question 56

Options:

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Questions 57

What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?

Options:

A.

allows access restrictions to be implemented between subscriber sites.

B.

provides direct connections between subscribers

C.

supports Layer 2 VPNs

D.

supports application optimization

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Questions 58

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

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Questions 59

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

iPv6 address

D.

OSPf process ID

E.

OSPf stub flag

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Questions 60

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

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Questions 61

200-301 Question 61

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 62

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Questions 63

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

200-301 Question 63

Options:

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Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 64

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

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Questions 65

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

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Questions 66

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

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Questions 67

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

NETCONF

C.

Thrift

D.

CORBA

E.

DSC

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Questions 68

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

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Questions 69

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

200-301 Question 69

Options:

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 70

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.0/27

B.

10.10.10.0/28

C.

0.0.0.0/0

D.

10.10.13.0/24

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Questions 71

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

200-301 Question 71

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 72

Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 72

Options:

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Questions 73

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

200-301 Question 73

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 74

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

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Questions 75

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

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Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 76

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

Options:

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

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Questions 77

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

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Questions 78

Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

Options:

A.

management

B.

protected frame

C.

control

D.

action

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Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 79

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 80

200-301 Question 80

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

200-301 Question 80

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

B. Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 81

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

Options:

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

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Questions 82

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

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Questions 83

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

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Questions 84

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Questions 85

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

200-301 Question 85

Options:

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Questions 86

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

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Questions 87

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Questions 88

Which option about JSON is true?

Options:

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

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Questions 89

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

Options:

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

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Questions 90

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1

channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10

switchport

switchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10

no switchport

ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 91

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Questions 92

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 92

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

200-301 Question 92

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 93

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

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Questions 94

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 95

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

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Questions 96

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 96

Options:

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Questions 97

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

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Questions 98

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 99

The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.

Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport access vlan 67

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 67

C.

switchport private-vlan association host 67

D.

switchport trunk native vlan 67

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Questions 100

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 101

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

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Questions 102

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

Options:

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

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Questions 103

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

Options:

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

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Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 104

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Options:

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

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Questions 105

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

Options:

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

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Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 106

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

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Questions 107

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

200-301 Question 107

Options:

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 108

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

200-301 Question 108

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 109

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 109

Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131

B.

ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224

D.

ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

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Questions 110

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

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Questions 111

An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?

Options:

A.

Exchange

B.

2-way

C.

Full

D.

Init

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Questions 112

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

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Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 113

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.

C.

It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.

D.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

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Questions 114

Refer to me exhibit.

200-301 Question 114

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

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Questions 115

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 115

An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If

the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

B.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100

C.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0

R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

D.

R2(config)# interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp

E.

R1(config)# interface fa0/0

R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

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Questions 116

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

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Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 117

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

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Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 118

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

A.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

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Questions 119

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 119

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Options:

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

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Questions 120

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

Options:

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

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Questions 121

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

200-301 Question 121

Options:

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Questions 122

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 122

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

200-301 Question 122

Options:

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Questions 123

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

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Questions 124

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Questions 125

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Questions 126

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

200-301 Question 126

Options:

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Questions 127

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

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Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 128

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

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Questions 129

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 130

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 130

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

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Questions 131

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

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Questions 132

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

Options:

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

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Questions 133

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Questions 134

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

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Questions 135

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 135

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 136

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 137

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 137

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

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Questions 138

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

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Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 139

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 140

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Questions 141

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 141

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

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Questions 142

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

Options:

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Questions 143

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

Options:

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

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Questions 144

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

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Questions 145

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

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Questions 146

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?

Options:

A.

6

B.

8

C.

12

D.

18

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Questions 147

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

200-301 Question 147

Options:

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Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 148

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

200-301 Question 148

B)

200-301 Question 148

C)

200-301 Question 148

D)

200-301 Question 148

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 149

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

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Questions 150

200-301 Question 150

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Questions 151

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

Options:

A.

cost

B.

adminstrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

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Questions 152

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

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Questions 153

Refer to Exhibit.

200-301 Question 153

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

200-301 Question 153

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 154

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Questions 155

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 156

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

200-301 Question 156

Options:

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Questions 157

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

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Questions 158

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

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Questions 159

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 159

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

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Questions 160

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

unique local

C.

link-local

D.

multicast

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Questions 161

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

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Questions 162

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

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Questions 163

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

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Questions 164

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

Options:

A.

Internet Group Management Protocol

B.

Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C.

Cisco Discovery Protocol

D.

Neighbor Discovery Protocol

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Questions 165

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

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Questions 166

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

Options:

A.

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

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Questions 167

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

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Questions 168

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Questions 169

How does WPA3 improve security?

Options:

A.

It uses SAE for authentication.

B.

It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.

C.

It uses RC4 for encryption.

D.

It uses TKIP for encryption.

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Questions 170

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

Options:

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Questions 171

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 172

Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

service port

C.

virtual

D.

management

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Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 173

Which command must be enable a floating default route on router A?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

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Questions 174

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

Options:

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

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Questions 175

Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?

• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters

• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable

Options:

A.

straight-through

B.

rollover

C.

crossover

D.

console

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Questions 176

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

Options:

A.

The control parameters of the MRP run

B.

The creation date of the materials

C.

The low-level code of the materials

D.

The replenishment lead time of the materials

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Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 177

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)

200-301 Question 177

B)

200-301 Question 177

C)

200-301 Question 177

D)

200-301 Question 177

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 178

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

Options:

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

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Questions 179

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 179

The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.226

B.

192.168.1.100

C.

192.168.1.254

D.

192.168.1.253

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Questions 180

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

200-301 Question 180

Options:

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Questions 181

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 181

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Questions 182

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

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Questions 183

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 183

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 184

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 184

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 185

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 185

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 186

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 186

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

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Questions 187

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 187

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Questions 188

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 188

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Questions 189

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 189

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Questions 190

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 191

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

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Questions 192

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 192

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 193

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

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Questions 194

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 195

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

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Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 196

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

200-301 Question 196

B)

200-301 Question 196

C)

200-301 Question 196

D)

200-301 Question 196

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 197

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

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Questions 198

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 198

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 198

B)

200-301 Question 198

C)

200-301 Question 198

D)

200-301 Question 198

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 199

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

200-301 Question 199

B)

200-301 Question 199

C)

200-301 Question 199

D)

200-301 Question 199

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 200

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

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Questions 201

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

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Questions 202

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

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Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 203

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

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Questions 204

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 204

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

200-301 Question 204

B)

200-301 Question 204

C)

200-301 Question 204

D)

200-301 Question 204

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 205

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 205

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

200-301 Question 205

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 206

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

200-301 Question 206

Options:

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Questions 207

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

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Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 208

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Questions 209

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 209

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 210

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Questions 211

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 212

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

200-301 Question 212

Options:

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Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 213

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Questions 214

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 214

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

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Questions 215

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Questions 216

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 216

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Questions 217

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

200-301 Question 217

B)

200-301 Question 217

C)

200-301 Question 217

D)

200-301 Question 217

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 218

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 .password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

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Questions 219

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

interface e1/1

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1

network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0

hello interval 15

interface e1/1

Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Questions 220

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234

ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148

ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722

ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002

ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155

ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Buy Now
Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 221

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

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Questions 222

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

200-301 Question 222

B)

200-301 Question 222

C)

200-301 Question 222

D)

200-301 Question 222

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 223

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 224

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 225

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

200-301 Question 225

B)

200-301 Question 225

C)

200-301 Question 225

D)

200-301 Question 225

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 226

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 226

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

200-301 Question 226

B)

200-301 Question 226

C)

200-301 Question 226

D)

200-301 Question 226

E)

200-301 Question 226

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Buy Now
Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 227

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Buy Now
Questions 228

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 228

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

200-301 Question 228

B)

200-301 Question 228

C)

200-301 Question 228

D)

200-301 Question 228

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 229

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

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Questions 230

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 230

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

200-301 Question 230

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Questions 231

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 231

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

Options:

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Questions 232

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 232

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

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Questions 233

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 234

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 234

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Swrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode active

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

Switch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 235

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 236

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Questions 237

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Questions 238

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

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Questions 239

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 239

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

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Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

200-301 Question 240

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

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Questions 241

200-301 Question 241

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined tot the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route? A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 32

Options:

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Questions 242

What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

C.

It provides greater throughput options.

D.

It carries signals for longer distances.

E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

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Questions 243

200-301 Question 243

200-301 Question 243

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 244

200-301 Question 244

200-301 Question 244

200-301 Question 244

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 245

What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSON text?

Options:

A.

UCS-2

B.

UTF-8

C.

Hex

D.

GB18030

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Questions 246

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 246

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Questions 247

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

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Questions 248

200-301 Question 248

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.

ipv6 address autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

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Questions 249

Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

delete

B.

create

C.

update

D.

read

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Questions 250

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 floating

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.200.0.2 10

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Questions 251

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 251

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Questions 252

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Questions 253

200-301 Question 253

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?

Options:

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 254

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

200-301 Question 254

Options:

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Questions 255

200-301 Question 255

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure preshared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wireless network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the 802.1 x option for Auth Key Management.

B.

Select the WPA Policy option.

C.

Select the PSK option for Auth Key Management.

D.

Select the AES option for Auth Key Management.

E.

Select the AES (CCMP128) option for WPA2/WPA3 Encryption.

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Questions 256

200-301 Question 256

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer updates the existing configuration on interface fastethernet1/1 switch SW1. It must establish an EtherChannel by using the same group designation with another vendor switch. Which configuration must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 2 mode desirable

B.

interface fasteinernet 1/1

channel-group 2 mode active

C.

interface fasteinernet 1/1

channel-group 2 mode on

D.

interface port-channel 2

channel-group 2 mode auto

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Questions 257

200-301 Question 257

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?

Options:

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.

O 100.100.100.100'32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the route

S 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.

D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,

R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

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Questions 258

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

200-301 Question 258200-301 Question 258

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Questions 259

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

Options:

A.

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection

B.

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources

C.

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions "admin" accounts

D.

IPS with a btock list of known attack vectors

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Questions 260

Which alternative to password authentication Is Implemented to allow enterprise devices to log in to the corporate network?

Options:

A.

magic links

B.

one-time passwords

C.

digital certificates

D.

90-day renewal policies

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Questions 261

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

200-301 Question 261200-301 Question 261

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Questions 262

A network administrator wants the syslog server to filter incoming messages into different files based on their Importance. Which filtering criteria must be used?

Options:

A.

level

B.

message body

C.

process ID

D.

facility

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Questions 263

Refer to the exhibit. The user has connectivity to devices on network 192.168.3 0/24 but cannot reach users on the network 10.10.1.0724.

What is the first step to verify connectivity?

200-301 Question 263

Options:

A.

Is the internet reachable?

B.

Is the default gateway reachable?

C.

Is the DNS server reachable?

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Questions 264

200-301 Question 264

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

200-301 Question 264

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Questions 265

200-301 Question 265

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

200-301 Question 265

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Questions 266

A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ip forward-protocol udp 137

B.

ip default-network 192.168.52.253

C.

ip helper-address 172.16.32.15

D.

ip default-gateway 192.168.52.253

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Questions 267

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

200-301 Question 267200-301 Question 267

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Questions 268

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middIe attacks?

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

console

C.

HTTPS

D.

SSH

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Questions 269

200-301 Question 269

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements:

• Create the username as CCUser.

• Create the password as NA!2Scc.

• Encrypt the user password.

What must be configured to meet the requirements?

Options:

A.

username CCUser privies 10 password NA!2Scc

B.

username CCUser password NA!2Scc enable password level 5 NA!2$cc

C.

username CCUser secret NA!2Scc

D.

username CCUser privilege 15 password NA!2Scc enable secret 0 NA!2$cc

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Questions 270

200-301 Question 270

200-301 Question 270

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

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Questions 271

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

200-301 Question 271

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Last Update: Feb 18, 2025
Questions: 990

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