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AgilePM-Foundation Agile Project Management (AgilePM) Foundation Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Who is responsible for the application of Principle 8, Demonstrate Control?

Options:

A.

Collectively applied by the whole team

B.

The project-level roles

C.

Team Leader

D.

Project Manager

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Questions 5

How does change management contribute to benefits?

Options:

A.

Encourages users to make the best use of the new situation.

B.

Ensures dis-benefits are avoided.

C.

Provides ultimate accountability for the benefits of a change.

D.

Produces all of the outcomes required to deliver benefits.

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Questions 6

Why is it appropriate to give Line Leaders privileged access to the thinking behind a change?

Options:

A.

They have seniority within the organization.

B.

Their authorization is needed to progress.

C.

Everyone should see this information.

D.

They may block change if not fully engaged.

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Questions 7

Which of the common Agile concepts, behaviors, and techniques composes fixed periods of time, at the end of which an objective has been met?

Options:

A.

Minimum viable product.

B.

Timeboxes (also known as sprints).

C.

Full transparency.

D.

Focus on frequent delivery.

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Questions 8

In neuroscience, which particularly rewards the brain's need for certainty?

Options:

A.

Change delivered in small stages.

B.

Delegated decision-making through change.

C.

Group social events.

D.

Public praise.

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Questions 9

When initially creating MoSCoW priorities, what is the primary focus?

Options:

A.

Project priorities

B.

Project increment priorities

C.

Timebox priorities

D.

Iterative Development priorities

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Questions 10

What phase will create Solution increments?

Options:

A.

Feasibility

B.

Foundations

C.

Evolutionary Development

D.

Deployment

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Questions 11

What is the purpose of the Foundations Summary?

Options:

A.

To document how stakeholders will be engaged and standards that will be applied.

B.

To define the tools, techniques, customer, practices and standards that will be applied

C.

To provide enough information to decide whether the project is likely to deliver return on investment

D.

To define the scope of the requirements that the project needs to address

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Questions 12

An organization has decided to roll out the transition to a new software application, one department at a time. What type of delivery strategy is being adopted?

Options:

A.

Big Bang.

B.

Phased.

C.

Voluntary Adoption.

D.

Many small incremental/iterative releases.

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Questions 13

Which statement about change is correct for DSDM?

Options:

A.

Change is a symptom of an inability to define requirements properly

B.

Avoid change whenever possible

C.

Change is inevitable and males estimating very difficult

D.

Project operate with a changing world

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Questions 14

According to Tuckman, in what stage of the team development model will members of the team be 'working collectively to achieve results'?

Options:

A.

Forming.

B.

Storming.

C.

Adjourning.

D.

Performing.

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Questions 15

During what phase should a baseline of the Evolving Solution be put into operational use?

Options:

A.

Foundations

B.

Evolutionary Development

C.

Deployment

D.

Post-Project

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Questions 16

Why do Line Leaders make effective Change Agents?

Options:

A.

They have local decision-making authority.

B.

As leaders, they are unaffected by the change.

C.

They can support and influence local staff.

D.

They have the time to dedicate to the change.

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Questions 17

Which of the following statements about a communication plan are true?

    Same overall format for all change initiatives.

    Content will differ depending on the scale and complexity of change.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

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Questions 18

What kind of power is conveyed by a manager who is admired and respected by their subordinates and seen as a role model?

Options:

A.

Legitimate.

B.

Reward.

C.

Coercive.

D.

Referent.

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Questions 19

According to the Cynefin framework, what type of change situation is stable and well understood, where the relationship between cause and effect is clear?

Options:

A.

Simple.

B.

Multifaceted.

C.

Complex.

D.

Chaotic.

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Questions 20

Which of the following statements, about ways in which we communicate and connect with people, are true?

    Non-verbal communication can be written.

    Our actions can speak volumes without saying a word.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

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Questions 21

What role, ideally, should be independent of the outcome to be achieved in a Facilitated Wordshop?

Options:

A.

Business Analyst

B.

Workshop Facilitator

C.

Business Ambassador

D.

Business Visionary

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Questions 22

What is the MoSCoW technical used for?

Options:

A.

Understanding and managing priorities.

B.

Ensuring a team-based approach through visual and verbal communication and collaboration.

C.

Creating a visual representation of a problem or a solution.

D.

As an opportunity to share information across the team and to do any day.to.day re-planning and reorganizing as necessary when issues occur.

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Questions 23

According to Tuckman, in what stage of the team development model are team members likely to want to test and challenge assumptions?

Options:

A.

Forming.

B.

Storming.

C.

Performing.

D.

Adjourning.

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Questions 24

When assessing the impact and severity of options on how to handle change, not all costs are financial. What type of cost is reflected in the downtime experienced while staff are trained to use a new process or system?

Options:

A.

Productivity dip.

B.

Safety & Wellbeing.

C.

Reputational.

D.

Opportunity.

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Questions 25

Which of the common Agile concepts, behaviors, and techniques delivers a version of a product with just enough features to be usable by early customers who can then provide feedback for future product development?

Options:

A.

Minimum viable product.

B.

Full transparency.

C.

Self-organized teams.

D.

Empowerment.

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Questions 26

According to Pink, which three factors are key motivators for 'knowledge work'?

Options:

A.

Dissatisfiers, rewards, and safety.

B.

Autonomy, safety, and self-esteem.

C.

Hygiene factors, autonomy, and self-actualization.

D.

Autonomy, mastery, and purpose.

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Questions 27

Which competence is NOT required within the Solution Development team?

Options:

A.

All members to be multi-skilled experts

B.

Business knowledge

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Willingness to work with other

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Questions 28

According to the brain science of resistance, which of the key neural factors is an example of a fixed mindset?

Options:

A.

Routine seeking.

B.

Emotional reaction to forced change.

C.

Cognitive rigidity.

D.

Short-term focus.

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Questions 29

Which information is given in the Solution Architecture Definition?

Options:

A.

A high-level design framework for the solution.

B.

A snapshot of the evolving business, solution and management products

C.

The tools and standards to be used in Evolutionary Development

D.

The strategy for testing

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Questions 30

Which practice provides an interactive environment in which all key players can contribute to the outcome?

Options:

A.

Modelling

B.

Facilitied Wordshop

C.

Iterative Development

D.

Timeboxing

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Exam Code: AgilePM-Foundation
Exam Name: Agile Project Management (AgilePM) Foundation Exam
Last Update: Feb 21, 2025
Questions: 100

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