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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

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Questions 5

A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:

Options:

A.

Change control plan

B.

Stakeholder register

C.

Risk log

D.

Communications management plan

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Questions 6

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

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Questions 7

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Questions 8

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 9

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 10

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Questions 11

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Questions 12

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 13

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

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Questions 14

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Questions 15

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Questions 16

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 17

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 18

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 19

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

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Questions 20

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

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Questions 21

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 22

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

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Questions 23

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 24

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 25

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

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Questions 26

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

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Questions 27

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

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Questions 28

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

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Questions 29

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 30

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 31

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 32

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 33

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

Options:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Questions 34

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

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Questions 35

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Options:

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

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Questions 36

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 37

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Questions 38

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Options:

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

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Questions 39

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

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Questions 40

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

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Questions 41

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Questions 42

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Affinity diagram

C.

Tree diagram

D.

Activity network diagram

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Questions 43

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 44

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 45

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

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Questions 46

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

Options:

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Questions 47

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 48

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 49

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

Options:

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

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Questions 50

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

Options:

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

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Questions 51

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Questions 52

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Questions 53

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

Options:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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Questions 54

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 55

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

Options:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

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Questions 56

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Questions 57

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Questions 58

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Questions 59

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

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Questions 60

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

Options:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

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Questions 61

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 62

Project management processes ensure the:

Options:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Questions 63

A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members' ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Interviews

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Delphi technique

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Questions 64

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 65

A project manager was assigned to a project with high uncertainty. What is the recommended method to calculate the project budget?

Options:

A.

Detailed estimation

B.

Lightweight estimation

C.

Parametric estimation

D.

A mix of them

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Questions 66

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

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Questions 67

Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

Options:

A.

strategic plan

B.

project

C.

portfolio

D.

program

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Questions 68

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Questions 69

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 70

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

Options:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

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Questions 71

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

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Questions 72

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

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Questions 73

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

Options:

A.

Estimating

B.

Scheduling

C.

Controlling

D.

Communicating

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Questions 74

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 75

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Questions 76

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

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Questions 77

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Questions 78

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Questions 79

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 80

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

Options:

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

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Questions 81

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

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Questions 82

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Questions 83

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 84

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Questions 85

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

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Questions 86

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

Options:

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Questions 87

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

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Questions 88

The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

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Questions 89

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Questions 90

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 91

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Questions 92

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

Options:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

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Questions 93

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

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Questions 94

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Questions 95

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Questions 96

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

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Questions 97

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Questions 98

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Questions 99

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 100

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Questions 101

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

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Questions 102

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Questions 103

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 104

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 105

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Questions 106

Portfolio Management is management of:

Options:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Questions 107

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 108

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

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Questions 109

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Questions 110

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 111

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 112

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Questions 113

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

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Questions 114

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

Options:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

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Questions 115

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 116

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

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Questions 117

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Questions 118

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

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Questions 119

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 120

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

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Questions 121

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

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Questions 122

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

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Questions 123

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Questions 124

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

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Questions 125

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Questions 126

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Questions 127

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 128

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

Options:

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

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Questions 129

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

Options:

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

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Questions 130

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

CAPM Question 130

Options:

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Questions 131

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Questions 132

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Questions 133

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

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Questions 134

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests

B.

work performance information and change requests

C.

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

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Questions 135

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 136

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

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Questions 137

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

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Questions 138

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Questions 139

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Questions 140

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

Options:

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

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Questions 141

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

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Questions 142

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Questions 143

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

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Questions 144

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

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Questions 145

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Questions 146

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

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Questions 147

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 148

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

Options:

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

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Questions 149

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

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Questions 150

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 151

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

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Questions 152

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Questions 153

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

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Questions 154

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 155

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Questions 156

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Questions 157

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 158

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

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Questions 159

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

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Questions 160

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Options:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Questions 161

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

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Questions 162

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 163

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Questions 164

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Questions 165

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Questions 166

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

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Questions 167

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Questions 168

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Questions 169

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

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Questions 170

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

Options:

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

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Questions 171

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

Options:

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

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Questions 172

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 173

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 174

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 175

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

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Questions 176

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

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Questions 177

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Questions 178

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 179

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

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Questions 180

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

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Questions 181

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

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Questions 182

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

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Questions 183

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

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Questions 184

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Options:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

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Questions 185

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 186

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 187

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Questions 188

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

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Questions 189

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

Options:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

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Questions 190

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

Options:

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Questions 191

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 192

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

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Questions 193

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

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Questions 194

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 195

Howls program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Questions 196

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

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Questions 197

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

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Questions 198

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

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Questions 199

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

Options:

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

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Questions 200

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Define Scope

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 201

Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Text-oriented formal

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Organization chart

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Questions 202

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

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Questions 203

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

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Questions 204

The Agile principle "welcome changing requirement, even late in development" relates to which agile manifesto?

Options:

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

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Questions 205

The primary purpose of the stakeholder register is to:

Options:

A.

Record stakeholder issues on the project

B.

Maintain lessons learned earlier in the project

C.

Maintain a list of all project stakeholders

D.

Document change requests and their status

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Questions 206

In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

A mix

D.

Agile

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Questions 207

To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?

Options:

A.

Quality Management

B.

Scope Management

C.

Cost Management

D.

Integration Management

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Questions 208

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

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Questions 209

What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?

Options:

A.

Attribute sampling

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 210

A project team is discussing an upcoming planned product launch of a highly visible technologically advanced artificial intelligence tool. The team is debating the aspect of iterative and hybrid approaches. Which aspect of tailoring would this best represent?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approaches

B.

Resource availability

C.

Project dimensions

D.

Technology support

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Questions 211

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

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Questions 212

What tool should a project manager use to efficiently manage project resources?

Options:

A.

List of project resources

B.

Resource breakdown structure

C.

Resources detailed in the project scope

D.

Resource requirements

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Questions 213

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

Options:

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

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Questions 214

When should Project Risk Management be conducted?

Options:

A.

Project Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Throughout the project lifecycle

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Questions 215

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

Options:

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

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Questions 216

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

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Questions 217

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

Options:

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

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Questions 218

A team receives four different requests from separate stakeholders related to one application Match each requirement with its corresponding type of change request.

Options:

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Questions 219

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

Options:

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

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Questions 220

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

Options:

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

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Questions 221

A project manager called for a team meeting...................method did the team use

A project manager called for a team meeting to estimate the project effort. During the session, the team went on to identify all the deliverables and analyzed the related work. Each of the analyzed deliverables were estimated. Which estimation method did the team use?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Expert Judgement

C.

Decomposition

D.

Data analysis

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Questions 222

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 223

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 224

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

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Questions 225

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

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Questions 226

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

Options:

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

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Questions 227

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 228

A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders. What is this an example of?

Options:

A.

Informal communication

B.

Internal communication

C.

Formal communication

D.

Horizontal communication

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Questions 229

Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?

Options:

A.

Communicate Plan

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Report Performance

D.

Control Communications

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Questions 230

What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.

B.

Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.

C.

Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.

D.

Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process.

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Questions 231

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

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Questions 232

Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

Options:

A.

Power interest grid

B.

Stakeholder cube

C.

Salience model

D.

Directions of influence

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Questions 233

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

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Questions 234

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Questions 235

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 236

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

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Questions 237

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Questions 238

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

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Questions 239

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

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Questions 240

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

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Questions 241

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

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Questions 242

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Questions 243

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

CAPM Question 243

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Questions 244

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 245

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Control Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 246

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

Options:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

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Questions 247

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

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Questions 248

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

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Questions 249

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 250

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 251

The following is a network diagram for a project.

CAPM Question 251

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

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Questions 252

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Questions 253

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 254

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Questions 255

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Questions 256

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Questions 257

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Questions 258

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Questions 259

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

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Questions 260

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 261

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 262

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 263

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Questions 264

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 265

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Questions 266

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

Options:

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Questions 267

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Questions 268

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 269

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

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Questions 270

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

Options:

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

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Questions 271

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

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Questions 272

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?

Options:

A.

Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.

B.

Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.

C.

Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.

D.

Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.

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Questions 273

Which role does the project manager resemble best?

Options:

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

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Questions 274

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

Options:

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

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Questions 275

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 276

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Questions 277

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

Options:

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

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Questions 278

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

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Questions 279

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Questions 280

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

Options:

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

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Questions 281

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

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Questions 282

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

CAPM Question 282

Options:

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Questions 283

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Questions 284

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Questions 285

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor's responsibility?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the business value

B.

Advocating the business value

C.

Tracking the business value

D.

Auditing the business value

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Questions 286

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Questions 287

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

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Questions 288

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 289

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Questions 290

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 291

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Questions 292

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Questions 293

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 294

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Questions 295

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Questions 296

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 297

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Questions 298

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Questions 299

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Questions 300

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 301

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Questions 302

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

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Questions 303

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Questions 304

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 305

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 306

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Questions 307

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Questions 308

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 309

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Questions 310

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Questions 311

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Questions 312

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

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Questions 313

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Questions 314

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Questions 315

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 316

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 317

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Questions 318

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 319

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Questions 320

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Questions 321

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Questions 322

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Questions 323

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Questions 324

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 325

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 326

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Questions 327

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Questions 328

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 329

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

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Questions 330

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Questions 331

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 332

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Questions 333

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Questions 334

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Questions 335

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Questions 336

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Questions 337

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Questions 338

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 339

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Questions 340

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Questions 341

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Questions 342

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

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Questions 343

Which of the following are components of the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Scope management plan, scope baseline, risk management plan, and configuration managemet plan

B.

Scope management plan, issue log, risk register and project schedule network diagram

C.

Scope management plan, schedule baseline, milestone list, and assumption log

D.

Scope management plan, cost estimates, duration estimates, and resource calenders

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Questions 344

What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?

Options:

A.

Allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders

B.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes

C.

Provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders

D.

Enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders

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Questions 345

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager.

What should the project manager do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Apply emotional intelligence (El) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team's issues.

B.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

C.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

D.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

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Questions 346

Which characteristic defines the Delphi technique of group decision-making?

Options:

A.

The participants must use their expertise to determine the best option.

B.

The decision is based on eliminating the options that are too expensive.

C.

The decision is based on a predefined algorithm and the highest score.

D.

The participants must create a list of options, rank them, and then vote.

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Questions 347

A project manager read the initial contract when a project was started. The contract states a house has to be built in one year, and the foundation has to be completed in 30 days. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Add the milestones to the risk register, as time is short.

B.

Add the two milestones to the project plan, as they are mandatory.

C.

Calculate the duration of the two milestones stated in the contract.

D.

Start the project as soon as possible, as time is short.

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Questions 348

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Starting the project

B.

Organizing the project

C.

Completing pre-project work

D.

Executing the product

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Questions 349

What can a project manager review to understand the status of a project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) status

B.

Quality and technical performance measures

C.

Cost and scope baselines

D.

Business case completeness

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Questions 350

Which of the in an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Questions 351

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer'?

Options:

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

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Questions 352

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

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Questions 353

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

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Questions 354

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

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Questions 355

What is the equation to calculate cost variance (CV)?

Options:

A.

CV = EV / BAC

B.

CV = EV - AC

C.

CV = EV - BAC

D.

CV = EV / AC

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Questions 356

In what type of organizational structure does a project manager develop their role and work with a team assigned by job function?

Options:

A.

Matrix - strong

B.

Matrix - balanced

C.

Virtual

D.

Functional

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Questions 357

A project is in its final stages when a competitor releases a similar product. This could make the project redundant. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Initiate change control.

B.

Address risk mitigation.

C.

Escalate this to the project sponsor.

D.

Initiate project closure.

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Questions 358

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

Options:

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

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Questions 359

What is main purpose of Project Quantity Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 360

Calculate the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) based on the following information: earned value (EV) is 30 and planned value (PV) is 15.

Options:

A.

2.0

B.

45

C.

0.5

D.

15

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Questions 361

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

Options:

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

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Questions 362

A new project was approved and the project manager is discussing the most suitable delivery approach with the project sponsor. Which three of the following are characteristics of a traditional project delivered using a linear delivery approach? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Many expected simple scope change requests

B.

Few expected simple scope change requests

C.

Routine and repetitive activities

D.

Collocated project teams

E.

Use of established templates

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Questions 363

A project manager is leading a technology project that is about to enter the execution phase. The project requires the procurement of certain key components from an external vendor. The project manager has been notified that because of a government regulation, some parts can no longer be used in the country and the vendor will be unable to deliver them.

What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Identify the impact and follow the procurement plan.

B.

Identify the impact and follow the project management plan.

C.

Identify the impact and follow the risk management plan.

D.

Identify the impact and follow the change control plan.

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Questions 364

A project manager is reviewing some techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to determine if the solution provides the functionality for typical usage by a stakeholder with in-depth business knowledge.

Which evaluation technique is most effective for this situation?

Options:

A.

Day-in-the-life testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Integration testing

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Questions 365

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

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Questions 366

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

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Questions 367

During project execution, a key resource leaves the team for another job. What should the project manager do in this situation?

Options:

A.

Submit a change request for additional budget to secure a project resource.

B.

Consult with the functional manager for a replacement resource.

C.

Distribute work to other team members to reduce impact to the project schedule.

D.

Consult the risk register for an appropriate risk response.

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Questions 368

A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following

A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Resources Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 369

A project manager is preparing a monthly status report for the project, which includes project performance compared to the baseline schedule. How can the project manager calculate the schedule variance (SV) for tasks on the critical path?

Options:

A.

Earned Schedule + Actual Time

B.

Actual Time - Earned Schedule

C.

Planned Value - Earned Value

D.

Earned Value - Planned Value

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Questions 370

An organization's project management office (PMO) has issued guidelines that require a specific template to be used for onboarding resources for a project. Where can the project manager find this template?

Options:

A.

Organizational systems access

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Resources management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 371

What is purpose of using the building information model (BIM) in software tools in the construction field?

Options:

A.

Reduce significant amount of time and money

B.

Help manage risks in large projects

C.

Keep up with emerging trends

D.

Provide sellers with multiple sources for documents

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Questions 372

Which method should be used to elicit a cross-functional requirement?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Prototyping

C.

Facilitated workshops

D.

Interviews

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Questions 373

A new game development process must have three versions. Each version is to be developed in approximately five iteration cycles with a duration of one month each. This will help this small enterprise to have a return on investment (ROI) as the project runs from the first cycle. Which methodology should the project manager adopt and implement in the project?

Options:

A.

Feature-driven development (FDD) as it will deliver product segments and the milestones are controlled by the development manager.

B.

Kanban as it will provide flexibility to the team for working at their own pace in the time frame requested.

C.

Scrum as it uses sprints and retrospectives, maximizing time delivery and the value of the product.

D.

Extreme Programming (XP) as it will help deliver more quickly since developers will work in pairs.

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Questions 374

A project team identifies defects that will require a modification to a tool's functionality. What process should the project manager follow to obtain stakeholder buy-in?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 375

When planning communications management what input identifies key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project schedule

C.

Project charter

D.

Work performance reports

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Questions 376

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Current state analysis

B.

Facilitated workshops

C.

Scheduled interviews

D.

Shop floor observation

E.

Brainstorming sessions

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Questions 377

A new business analyst has joined the team in the middle of a project and the requirements traceability matrix has been updated. What should the business analyst do next?

Options:

A.

Review the project management plan.

B.

Share the requirements traceability matrix the same way it was shared previously.

C.

Consult the business analysis communications management plan.

D.

Ask the project manager to share the updated requirements traceability matrix at the next meeting.

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Questions 378

What behavior refers to leadership style?

Options:

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

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Questions 379

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team's issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

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Questions 380

Among all of the key stakeholders in an agile project, who is responsible for creating project requirements for the team?

Options:

A.

Scrum master

B.

Project manager

C.

Business analyst

D.

Project management office

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Questions 381

In the last two iterations, a project team failed to deliver all of the stories on time. What should the project manager do first in order to prevent this from recurring?

Options:

A.

Extend the delivery time for the product since the management reserve allows it.

B.

Temporarily use another team for the next iteration and evaluate their performance.

C.

Observe the project team's performance for the next two iterations before taking any action.

D.

Identify possible reasons for the delay and consult the risk register for corrective actions.

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Questions 382

What should a project manager consider to address the full delivery life cycle for large projects?

Options:

A.

A range of techniques utilizing a plan driven approach, adaptive approach or a hybrid ot both

B.

Only techniques of an agile/adaptive approach in large organizations

C.

Change the role of the project manager to managing pro|ci I in adaptive nuviionin-

D.

Splitting larger projects into two or more smaller project is which can be addressed in an adaptive method

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Questions 383

What earned value (EV) measure indicates the cost efficiency of the work completed?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Questions 384

Which is a key skill set in PMI’s Talent Triangle?

Options:

A.

Project excellence and scope management

B.

Strategic and business management

C.

Scope management and business management

D.

Financial management and people management

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Questions 385

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

Options:

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

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Questions 386

Considering a highly dynamic project environment, which approach should the project manager adopt to manage the project team?

Options:

A.

A self-organizing approach to increase team focus and maximize collaboration

B.

A virtual team to minimize feeling of isolation and gaps on sharing knowledge

C.

A distributed team to improve tracking progress, productivity, and performance

D.

A norming approach that requires team members to adjust their behavior and work together

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Questions 387

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float.

What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

Options:

A.

50-75%

B.

25-50%

C.

75-100%

D.

0-25%

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Questions 388

In adaptive projects, who should approve the prioritization of the backlog?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Project sponsor

C.

Business analyst

D.

Product owner

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Questions 389

Which three processes are generally included in risk management? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Monitor Risk Costs

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

E.

Estimate Risk Activity Resources

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Questions 390

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Decision tree analysis

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Questions 391

Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?

Options:

A.

Leadership, bilingualism, experience, and technical Knowledge

B.

PMP certification, experience, technical Knowledge, and post-graduate education

C.

Leadership, strategic and business management, project management knowledge, and technical knowledge

D.

Communication skills, project management knowledge, PMP certification, and availability to travel

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Questions 392

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

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Questions 393

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

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Questions 394

How should the project manager obtain the maximum engagement from stakeholders that have recently changed to become more connected to social media?

Options:

A.

Adopt co-creation, sharing responsibilities with stakeholders

B.

Adopt participation of stakeholders in main meetings, listening to their opinion.

C.

Adopt social media tools, improving communication with stakeholders

D.

Adopt involvement of stakeholders in lessons learned sessions, sharing experiences with them

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Questions 395

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

Options:

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Feb 3, 2026
Questions: 1317

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