CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Questions and Answers

This is because the homegrown identity management system is not consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication, auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security and efficiency of the identity management process. A requirements document can help define the scope, objectives, and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the institution.

Replacing the current antivirus with an EDR (endpoint detection and response) solution is the best solution for addressing several service outages on the endpoints due to new malware. An EDR solution is a technology that provides advanced capabilities for detecting, analyzing, and responding to threats or incidents on endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, or servers. An EDR solution can use behavioral analysis, machine learning, threat intelligence, or other methods to identify new or unknown malware that may evade traditional antivirus solutions. An EDR solution can also provide automated or manual remediation actions, such as isolating, blocking, or removing malware from endpoints. Removing the web proxy and installing a UTM (unified threat management) appliance is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could expose endpoints to more threats or attacks by removing a layer of protection that filters web traffic, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Implementing a deny list feature on endpoints is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could be ineffective or impractical for blocking new or unknown malware that may not be on the deny list, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Adding a firewall module on the current antivirus solution is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could introduce compatibility or performance issues for endpoints by adding an additional feature that may not be integrated or optimized with the antivirus solution, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-edr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-so urce/resources/casp-content-guide

VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

OWASP is a resource used to identify attack vectors and their mitigations, OVAL is a vulnerability assessment standard

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a source that the security architect could consult to address the security concern of XSS (cross-site scripting) attacks on a web application that uses a database back end. OWASP is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications and services. OWASP publishes the OWASP Top 10 list of common web application vulnerabilities and risks, which includes XSS attacks, as well as recommendations and best practices for preventing or mitigating them. SDLC (software development life cycle) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a framework for developing software in an organized and efficient manner. OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of engineering and technology. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-owasp https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology. Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating and streamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker’s actions. Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology https://partners.comptia.org/ docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Defenses against BGP hijacks include IP prefix filtering, meaning IP address announcements are sent and accepted only from a small set of well-defined autonomous systems, and monitoring Internet traffic to identify signs of abnormal traffic flows.

The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of a compromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device’s account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Utilizing HMAC (hash-based message authentication code) for the keys is the best option for securing the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. HMAC is a technique that uses a secret key and a hash function to generate a code that can verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Utilizing HMAC for the keys can prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string, as it can dynamically generate a unique code for each request based on the secret key and the message content, making it difficult to forge or replay. Implementing a VPN (virtual private network) for all APIs is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Signing the key with DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm) is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could be vulnerable to attacks or forgery if the key is compromised or weak, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Deploying MFA (multi-factor authentication) for the service accounts is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could affect the usability or functionality of API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-hmac https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above)

source: https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-mus t-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

These are two of the requirements of the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The GDPR also requires data controllers to obtain consent from data subjects, protect data with appropriate security measures, notify data subjects and authorities of data breaches, and appoint a data protection officer.

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:

https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html

https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

 An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. References: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-info rmation-sharing-community/

Assuring the integrity of messages is the most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS (industrial control system) how much electrical power to output. Integrity is the security objective that ensures the accuracy and completeness of data or information, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Assuring the integrity of messages can prevent malicious or accidental changes to the control messages that could affect the operation or safety of the ICS or the electrical power output. Importing the availability of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the accessibility and usability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or disruption of service. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or dispute of actions or transactions. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the compliance and consistency of data or information, preventing unauthorized deviations or violations of rules or standards. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-integrity https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/reso urces/casp-content-guide

The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database. References: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/web-application-firewall-waf/

According to NIST SP 800-146, cloud computing introduces new risks that need to be assessed and managed by the cloud consumer. Some of these risks are related to the shared responsibility model of cloud computing, where some security controls are implemented by the cloud provider and some by the cloud consumer. The cloud consumer cannot transfer all the risks to the cloud provider and needs to understand which risks are retained and which are mitigated by the cloud provider.3

SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs /default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application, as it will provide access to the latest version of the source code to continue development. A source code escrow is an agreement between a software developer and a client that involves depositing the source code of a software product with a third-party escrow agent. The escrow agent can release the source code to the client under certain conditions specified in the agreement, such as bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by the developer. The company will not be able to force the third-party developer to continue support, manage their development process, or pay them to hire a new development team by utilizing a source code escrow. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-source-code-escrow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

This is because a risk assessment requires identifying the assets that are valuable to the organization and could be targeted by attackers. A full inventory of information and data assets can help the analyst prioritize the most critical assets and determine their potential exposure to threats. Without knowing what assets are at stake, the analyst cannot effectively assess the risk level or the impact of an attack. Creating an inventory of assets is also a prerequisite for performing other actions, such as following compliance standards, measuring availability, or conducting penetration tests.

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://p artners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Utilizing watermarks in the images that are specific to each external party would best accomplish the goal of tracing back any leaked draft images. Watermarks are visible or invisible marks that can be embedded in digital images to indicate ownership, authenticity, or origin. Watermarks can also be used to identify the recipient of the image and deter unauthorized copying or distribution. If a draft image is leaked to the public, the watermark can reveal which external party was responsible for the breach.

The best option for the security analyst to perform is to contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event. The email appears to be a phishing attempt that tries to trick the employees into revealing their login credentials by impersonating a legitimate sender. The security department at the business partner should be notified so they can investigate the source and scope of the attack and take appropriate actions to protect their systems and users. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://us-cert.cisa.g ov/ncas/tips/ST04-014

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to bolster the network security by restricting the availability of network resources to managed endpoints that don't satisfy the compliance requirements of the Organization.

An EDR and whitelist should protect from this attack.

Detonating the malware in a sandbox is the best way to analyze its behavior and determine whether the existing endpoint controls are effective. A sandbox is an isolated environment that mimics a real system but prevents any malicious actions from affecting the actual system. By detonating the malware in a sandbox, the analyst can observe how it interacts with the system, what files it creates or modifies, what network connections it establishes, and what indicators of compromise it exhibits. This can help the analyst identify the malware’s capabilities, objectives, and weaknesses. A sandbox can also help the analyst compare different malware samples and determine if they are related or part of the same campaign.

A. Updating the incident response plan is not a risk mitigation technique, but rather a proactive measure to prepare for potential incidents. It does not help the analyst identify whether existing endpoint controls are effective against the malware.

B. Blocklisting the executable is a risk mitigation technique that can prevent the malware from running on the system, but it does not help the analyst analyze its behavior or determine whether existing endpoint controls are effective. Moreover, blocklisting may not be feasible if each malware sample has a unique hash tied to the user.

C. Deploying a honeypot onto the laptops is a risk mitigation technique that can lure attackers away from the real systems and collect information about their activities, but it does not help the analyst analyze the malware’s behavior or determine whether existing endpoint controls are effective. A honeypot is also more suitable for detecting network-based attacks rather than endpoint-based attacks.

Digital signatures require the use of a cryptographic key pair, which consists of a private key used to sign the application and a public key used to verify the signature. If the certificate used for signing the application is set for the wrong key usage, then the signature will fail. This can happen if the certificate is set for encrypting data instead of signing data, or if the certificate is set for the wrong algorithm, such as using an RSA key for an ECDSA signature.

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a set of policies and procedures that outline how an organization should respond to and recover from disruptions [1]. It is designed to ensure that critical operations and services can be quickly restored and maintained, and should include steps to identify risks, develop plans to mitigate those risks, and detail the procedures to be followed in the event of a disruption. Resources:

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 4: “Business Continuity Planning,” Wiley, 2018. https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Advanced+Security+Practitioner+CASP%2B+Study+Guide%2C+2nd+Edition-p-9781119396582

Configuring MFA for all users to decrease their reliance on other authentication is the best option to improve email security at the company. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more factors, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access to email accounts even if the username or password is compromised or shared. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3239144/what-is-mfa-how-multi-factor-authentication-works.html

Visitor logs would be the best additional method for identifying individuals who enter the building in the event of a camera system failure. Visitor logs track who enters and exits a secured facility, providing a record that can be cross-referenced with security events, like the discovery of a suspicious flash drive. In this case, reviewing the visitor logs could help identify the vendor representative who dropped the flash drive. CASP+ highlights the importance of physical security measures, such as logging and auditing access to facilities, to complement digital security controls.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Physical Security and Access Control Logs)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Physical Security and Incident Response Procedures

Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are member-driven organizations, facilitated by the government, that gather and share information on cybersecurity threats, vulnerabilities, and incidents among their members. Engaging with an ISAC would enable the company to collaborate with others in the industry regarding emerging attacks and security threats.

Given the vulnerability in the deprecated runtime engine, configuring an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) and WAF (Web Application Firewall) with appropriate signatures is the best temporary control. This allows the organization to monitor and block potential attacks targeting known vulnerabilities in the runtime engine while the developers work on the transition. Shutting down the systems or uninstalling the runtime engine would cause service interruptions, and blocking traffic might disrupt legitimate users. IPS and WAF provide an active layer of defense without interrupting service. CASP+ emphasizes the use of layered security, including IPS and WAF, to mitigate risks in public-facing applications.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Web Application Firewalls, Intrusion Prevention Systems)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Mitigating Application Vulnerabilities with WAFs and IPS

Due care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches.

Code signing is the process of digitally signing executables and scripts to confirm the software author and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it was signed. This provides users with the assurance that the software is legitimate and safe to install.

Step by Step Explanation:

Creating an organizational risk register ensures the issue is documented and prioritized for mitigation, aligning with risk management best practices.

Accepting the risk is not advisable due to the financial implications of failure.

Implementing network compensating controls does not address server reliability.

Purchasing insurance only offsets financial risk and does not ensure system functionality.

Caching is the most appropriate solution to improve response time for static content, such as sponsor-related data on the entry pages. Caching stores frequently accessed data closer to users, reducing the need to retrieve it from the database repeatedly. This results in faster load times, especially during high-traffic events. While scalability (horizontal or vertical) might address overall system performance, caching specifically targets improving the speed of accessing static content. CASP+ emphasizes caching as a performance optimization technique for handling high-demand, static web content.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 – Enterprise Security Architecture (Performance Optimization and Caching)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Optimizing Web Application Performance with Caching

In a SaaS cloud service model, the client is typically responsible for the data, including its security and compliance aspects. The SaaS provider would handle the infrastructure, including physical security and network security, but the client must ensure the data they input into the SaaS application is protected in line with their own security policies and compliance requirements.

Using digital certificates for authentication is a secure method to control access to laptops and other devices. A device certificate can serve as an authenticator by providing a means for the device to prove its identity in a cryptographic manner. This certificate-based authentication is commonly used in enterprise environments for strong authentication.

Restricting HTTP methods can mitigate the risk of network-based attacks against an online store by limiting the types of HTTP requests that the server will accept, thus reducing the attack surface. This is a common method to prevent web-based attacks such as Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and SQL Injection.

To meet the requirements for authentication using trusted third parties and session maintenance, SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) and JWT (JSON Web Token) are the best options. SAML is widely used for single sign-on (SSO) and federated authentication, allowing users to authenticate with an external identity provider (trusted third party). JWT is commonly used for maintaining authenticated sessions across web applications and is well-suited for long-term session management, like the six-month duration mentioned. Together, these solutions meet the requirements for standards-based authentication and long-lasting sessions. CASP+ discusses the role of SAML in federated identity management and JWT in token-based authentication.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Federated Identity Management, JWT, SAML)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Web Application Authentication with SAML and JWT

The data owner is best qualified to classify systems and data in accordance with external requirements. The data owner is responsible for determining how data should be classified based on its sensitivity, value, and regulatory requirements. They have the authority to decide on classification levels such as public, confidential, or secret, and ensure compliance with external standards. Other roles, like data custodians or processors, support the implementation of data management, but the data owner has the final responsibility for classification. CASP+ highlights the role of data owners in determining data classification and ensuring compliance with external requirements.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Data Classification and Data Owner Responsibilities)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Data Classification and Governance Responsibilities of the Data Owner

When an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) system flags legitimate software as malicious, it is a false positive. This occurs when the EDR incorrectly identifies normal, non-malicious activity as a threat. The scenario described indicates that the development software was blocked even though there were no changes to the software, which suggests a false positive by the EDR system.

To securely operate the camera, the security analyst should recommend hardening the camera configuration. This involves several steps:

Changing Default Credentials: Default usernames and passwords are a common vulnerability. They should be replaced with strong, unique passwords.

Disabling Unnecessary Services and Ports: The numerous open ports and insecure protocols should be reviewed, and any unnecessary services should be disabled to reduce the attack surface.

Firmware Updates: Ensuring the camera's firmware is up to date will mitigate known vulnerabilities.

Enable Encryption: If possible, enable encryption for both data in transit and at rest to protect the video stream and other communications from interception.

This approach addresses the identified vulnerabilities directly and ensures that the device is more secure. Simply sending logs to the SIEM or isolating the camera might not fully mitigate the risks associated with default settings and open ports.

References:

CompTIA CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Section 2.4: Implement security activities across the technology life cycle.

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Chapter 5: Implementing Host Security.

In cloud computing models, the security of the physical data center is the responsibility of the Cloud Service Provider (CSP). The CSP is responsible for protecting the infrastructure that runs all of the services offered in the cloud, which includes the physical security of the data center.

When a security researcher identifies a vulnerability, especially one involving remote code execution, they must navigate a process that protects them legally and ethically. The best advice here is to consult with legal professionals to understand any liabilities, such as potential violations of non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) or intellectual property concerns. Legal consultation ensures that the researcher follows responsible disclosure practices and avoids legal repercussions, which aligns with CASP+ guidance on managing vulnerabilities and the responsible handling of sensitive security information. CompTIA CASP+ emphasizes the importance of adhering to legal and regulatory frameworks when reporting vulnerabilities, especially when dealing with former employers or clients.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Responsible Disclosure, Legal Concerns)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Handling Vulnerabilities and Legal Considerations

Step by Step Explanation:

Data labeling enables metadata tagging for data classification, which allows systems to filter, act, and enforce policies based on the labels.

Data mapping is used for understanding data flows but does not support automation.

Log scraping and resource tagging are unrelated to enabling system actions based on data classification.

The scan output in line 06 indicates that OCSP Must-Staple is not supported. This vulnerability exposes the application to attacks where an attacker can exploit the trust relationship between the client and the server by forging certificate revocation statuses. When OCSP stapling is not enforced, a client cannot reliably check if a certificate has been revoked, potentially allowing attackers to exploit this gap. CASP+ discusses the importance of certificate validation mechanisms such as OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) to prevent man-in-the-middle and trust-exploiting attacks.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Certificate Validation, OCSP)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure Web Services and Trust Relationships

HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) is a web security policy mechanism that helps to protect websites against man-in-the-middle attacks such as protocol downgrade attacks and cookie hijacking. It allows web servers to declare that web browsers (or other complying user agents) should only interact with it using secure HTTPS connections, and never via the insecure HTTP protocol. Enabling HSTS would prevent attackers from redirecting users from a secure site to an unsecure or malicious one.

NetFlow logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and volume, which can be analyzed to detect anomalies, including potential security incidents. They can be invaluable in correlating the timing and nature of network events with security incidents to better understand if there is an association.

ssdeep is a tool that computes and matches Context Triggered Piecewise Hashing (CTPH), also known as fuzzy hashing. It can be used to identify similar files or slight variations of the same file, which may point to the creator of the file if certain patterns or markers are consistently present. This method allows for integrity checking without altering the evidence, which is critical in forensic investigation.

The combination of DAST (Dynamic Application Security Testing) and SAST (Static Application Security Testing) would meet the developers' requirements. DAST is used for runtime testing, capable of simulating attacks like SQL injection and reflected XSS, which fulfills the first requirement. SAST analyzes the code statically to ensure that the application is not vulnerable to issues like memory leaks, fulfilling the second requirement. Implementing both will integrate security testing into the SDLC, addressing the security concerns earlier in the development cycle, as recommended in CASP+.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (DAST, SAST for Secure Software Development)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure SDLC and Application Security Testing

A protocol analyzer, such as Wireshark, is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows security administrators to inspect individual packets, understand the traffic flow, and identify any unusual patterns or issues that may be impacting performance, such as high latency or unusual volume of traffic on a specific port.

Step by Step Explanation:

RPO (Recovery Point Objective): Specifies the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. If data loss of more than one hour is unacceptable, the RPO should be set to less than or equal to one hour.

RTO (Recovery Time Objective): Refers to the acceptable duration of system downtime, which is not relevant to the question.

The BCP, DRP, and SLA do not directly address data loss.

Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, like credit card numbers, with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain all the essential information without compromising its security. This method is compliant with PCI DSS requirements as it ensures that actual credit card data is not stored or processed, thus minimizing the risk of data breaches. Tokenization also maintains confidentiality even if part of the data handling system is compromised, as the tokens do not hold any exploitable data.

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the document used to specify due dates for the remediation of high- and critical-priority findings. SLAs outline the responsibilities of the service provider, including time frames for addressing issues or vulnerabilities, based on their severity. By setting clear timelines for remediation, SLAs ensure that critical security vulnerabilities are addressed in a timely manner. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of SLAs in maintaining accountability for security operations and ensuring compliance with organizational security policies.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (SLAs and Security Management)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: SLAs for Security Vulnerability Management

Even though the company uses a cloud service provider (CSP) that is PCI compliant, the customer must still ensure that in-scope systems related to their new payment system offering are also PCI compliant. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) applies to any system that processes, stores, or transmits credit card data, and this includes customer-owned systems, services, or applications integrated into the solution. The responsibility is shared between the CSP and the customer, and compliance is not automatically inherited just because the CSP is compliant. CASP+ emphasizes that organizations must ensure all components within their control are also PCI compliant.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Compliance and PCI DSS)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Cloud Services and PCI Compliance

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

Step by Step Explanation:

Dynamic analysis involves testing the application while it is running to identify vulnerabilities present during execution, providing the most exhaustive runtime vulnerability detection.

Input validation is a specific security control, not a method for exhaustive testing.

Side-channel analysis examines unintended information leakage but does not comprehensively assess runtime vulnerabilities.

Fuzz testing is a specific technique within dynamic analysis but does not ensure exhaustive coverage.

Static analysis examines code without execution, missing runtime-specific vulnerabilities.

Step by Step Explanation:

The information disclosed in the error message (e.g., "Apache Tomcat 7.0.52") provides attackers insights into the software version, which may have known vulnerabilities.

Correcting this issue ensures that attackers cannot use the disclosed information to tailor more sophisticated or targeted attacks.

Best practices include suppressing unnecessary error details to mitigate the risk of information disclosure.

A virtual next-generation firewall (vNGFW) is a software version of a NGFW that can be deployed on cloud servers to provide advanced network security features. A vNGFW can help secure the cloud environment similarly to the infrastructure on premises by providing functions such as URL filtering, SSL/TLS inspection, deep packet inspection, antivirus, IPS, application control, and sandboxing. A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can help secure the web servers in the cloud environment by protecting them from common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on criteria such as identity, role, or function. Microsegmentation can help secure the cloud environment by isolating different types of servers and applying granular security policies to each segment.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the availability and performance of web applications by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. However, a CDN does not provide the same level of security as a vNGFW or a WAF. Software-defined WAN (SD-WAN) is a technology that uses software to manage the connectivity and routing of wide area network (WAN) traffic across multiple links or carriers. SD-WAN can help improve the reliability and efficiency of WAN connections by dynamically selecting the best path for each application based on factors such as bandwidth, latency, cost, and quality of service (QoS). However, SD-WAN does not provide the same level of security as a vNGFW or a WAF. External vulnerability scans are assessments that identify and report on the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of an IT system from an external perspective. External vulnerability scans can help improve the security posture of an IT system by providing visibility into its exposure to potential threats. However, external vulnerability scans do not provide the same level of protection as a vNGFW or a WAF. Containers are units of software that package an application and its dependencies into a standardized format that can run on any platform or environment. Containers can help improve the portability and scalability of applications by allowing them to run independently from the underlying infrastructure. However, containers do not provide the same level of security as microsegmentation. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3: Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services

The observation that the load balancer has only a single server assigned suggests an issue with scalability. Scalability refers to the ability of the system to handle increasing loads by adding resources. In this case, having a single server assigned to a load balancer may not be adequate to handle increased traffic or load, which could lead to performance issues.

Obfuscation is a technique used to make the program code difficult to understand or read. It can help to prevent reverse engineering by making it more challenging to analyze the code and understand its structure and functionality, thereby protecting intellectual property.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST) is the best method for validating code as it is written. SAST analyzes the source code or binaries of an application for vulnerabilities before the code is executed, allowing developers to identify and fix security flaws early in the development process. This method integrates into the development environment and provides real-time feedback, which is critical for ensuring secure coding practices from the start. CASP+ highlights the importance of SAST in secure software development lifecycles (SDLCs) as a proactive measure to prevent security issues before the code is deployed.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (SAST for Secure Code Validation)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Secure Software Development and Static Code Analysis

A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a file to sign it with their private key and the receiver to verify it with the sender’s public key. This ensures the integrity and authenticity of the file, as well as the non-repudiation of the sender. A message hash or a message digest is a one-way function that produces a fixed-length output from an input, but it does not provide any information about the sender. A message authentication code (MAC) is a symmetric-key technique that allows both the sender and the receiver to generate and verify a code using a shared secret key, but it does not provide non-repudiation. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.1: Apply cryptographic techniques

In this scenario, the web application is disclosing sensitive debugging information when an error occurs. To mitigate this risk, the best solution is to implement proper error message handling routines that ensure detailed debugging information is not exposed to users. Instead, the application should display generic error messages to the end-user while logging detailed information securely for internal troubleshooting. This approach reduces the risk of information disclosure, which is a common vulnerability in web applications. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of secure error handling as part of secure software development practices.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Secure Coding and Error Handling)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Web Application Security and Proper Error Handling

When conducting a risk assessment for a vendor that provides multiple products, it is important to perform the assessment at the individual product level. Each product might have different risk factors, security requirements, and vulnerabilities, so assessing each one ensures a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved. Assessing randomly or only major products could leave gaps in understanding the risks for smaller but still critical products. CASP+ emphasizes that risk assessments should be detailed and product-specific for a thorough evaluation.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 1.0 – Risk Management (Vendor and Product Risk Assessments)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Vendor Risk Management

Given that the company requires all its data to be stored within the country and the provider offers only multitenant cloud hosting with minimal security measures, the first step should be to ensure that the data storage complies with legal requirements. This is particularly important because government regulations require data to be stored domestically, which is a legal requirement that takes precedence over other considerations.

Federation is the best strategy for unifying application access between two companies without merging their internal authentication stores. Federation allows users from different organizations to authenticate and access resources using their existing credentials through trusted third-party identity providers. This enables seamless access without the need to merge or consolidate internal authentication systems. CASP+ emphasizes federation as a key technology for enabling cross-organizational authentication while maintaining the integrity of separate identity stores.

References:

CASP+ CAS-004 Exam Objectives: Domain 2.0 – Enterprise Security Operations (Federated Identity and Authentication)

CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide: Federated Identity Management for Mergers and Cross-Company Access

Watermarking is a technique of adding an identifying image or pattern to an original image to protect its ownership and authenticity. Watermarks can be customized to include specific information about the external party, such as their name, logo, or date of receipt. This way, if any draft images are leaked to the public, the firm can trace back the source of the leak and take appropriate actions. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watermark

https://www.canva.com/features/watermark-photos/

https://www.mdpi.com/2078-2489/11/2/110

Reviewing video from IP cameras within the facility would be the most likely process to expose an attacker who has compromised an air-gapped system. Since air-gapped systems are isolated from external networks, an attacker would need physical access to the system or use some covert channel to communicate with it. Video surveillance could reveal any unauthorized or suspicious activity within the facility that could be related to the attack. Verified References:

https://www.welivesecurity.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/eset_jumping_the_air_gap_wp.pdf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air-Gap_Malware

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/essentialguide/How-air-gap-attacks-challenge-the-notion-of-secure-networks

VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

Deploying a web application firewall (WAF) signature is a way to detect and block attempts to exploit the Heartbleed vulnerability on the web server. A WAF signature is a pattern that matches a known attack vector, such as a malicious heartbeat request. By deploying a WAF signature, the company can protect its web application from Heartbleed attacks until the underlying vulnerability is fixed.

Updating the OpenSSL library is the ultimate way to fix and mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability. The OpenSSL project released version 1.0.1g on April 7, 2014, which patched the bug by adding a bounds check to the heartbeat function. By updating the OpenSSL library on the web server, the company can eliminate the vulnerability and prevent any future exploitation.

B. Fixing the PHP code is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not in the PHP code, but in the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.

C. Changing the web server from HTTPS to HTTP is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because it would expose all the web traffic to eavesdropping and tampering by attackers. HTTPS provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for web communications, and should not be disabled for security reasons.

D. Using SSLv3 is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because SSLv3 is an outdated and insecure protocol that has been deprecated and replaced by TLS. SSLv3 does not support modern cipher suites, encryption algorithms, or security features, and is vulnerable to various attacks, such as POODLE.

E. Changing the code from PHP to ColdFusion is not a way to resolve or mitigate the Heartbleed vulnerability, because the vulnerability is not related to the programming language of the web application, but to the OpenSSL library that handles the SSL/TLS encryption for the web server.

https://owasp.org/www-community/vulnerabilities/Heartbleed_Bug

https://heartbleed.com/

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/

https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/

https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

The root cause of this issue is that the iOS keychain imported only the client public and private keys, but not the CA certificate. A PKCS#12 file (.p12 or .pfx) is a file format that contains a certificate and its private key, optionally protected by a password. A PKCS#12 file can also contain intermediate certificates or root certificates that are needed to verify the certificate chain. However, when importing a PKCS#12 file into the iOS keychain, only the certificate and its private key are imported, not the CA certificate. This means that the iOS device cannot verify the authenticity of the certificate, and displays the error message “mbedTLS: ca certificate undefined”. To fix this issue, the CA certificate needs to be imported separately into the iOS keychain, either manually or using a configuration profile. Verified References:

https://developer.apple.com/documentation/devicemanagement/certificatepkcs12

https://support.apple.com/guide/deployment/distribute-certificates-depcdc9a6a3f/web

https://openvpn.net/faq/how-do-i-use-a-client-certificate-and-private-key-from-the-ios-keychain/

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help security analysts to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. MITRE ATT&CK is the most likely resource that a security analyst would adopt to implement the most up-to-date and effective security methodologies for their clients. Verified References:

https://attack.mitre.org/

https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

The analyst should implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running an attack simulation each time while collecting metrics. Roll back each solution and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics. This approach would allow the analyst to test each solution individually and measure its effectiveness against the attack, without affecting the other solutions or the production environment. This would also minimize the downtime required to implement the best solution, as only one change would be needed. The other options would either involve implementing multiple solutions at once, which could cause conflicts or errors, or collecting metrics before running the attack simulation, which would not reflect the actual impact of the solutions.

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 420]

OCSP stapling is a solution that allows the web server to provide a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA along with the certificate during the TLS handshake, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately to validate the certificate. OCSP stapling can reduce the delay caused by the certificate validation process by saving a round-trip between the client and the CA. It can also improve the security and privacy of the certificate validation by preventing potential attacks or tracking by malicious third parties. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OCSP_stapling

https://www.digicert.com/knowledgebase/ssl-certificates/ssl-general-topics/what-is-ocsp-stapling.html

https://www.entrust.com/knowledgebase/ssl/online-certificate-status-protocol-ocsp-stapling

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.

Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.

Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

Defining ACLs in a CSP relies on software-defined networking. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized and programmable network management. SDN can enable dynamic and flexible network configuration and optimization, as well as improved security and performance. In a CSP, SDN can be used to define ACLs that can apply to virtual networks, subnets, or interfaces, regardless of the physical infrastructure. SDN can also allow for granular and consistent ACL enforcement across different cloud services and regions. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsdn/definition/software-defined-networking-SDN

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/networking/network-security

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/cloud-networking

The process that involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit is e-discovery. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can be used for civil litigation, criminal prosecution, regulatory compliance, internal investigations, and other purposes. E-discovery can help parties obtain evidence from various sources, such as emails, documents, databases, social media, cloud services, mobile devices, and others. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.edrm.net/frameworks-and-standards/edrm-model/

https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/electronic_discovery_(federal)

Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

A. Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.

C. Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.

F. Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.

B. VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

D. PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

E. Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

G. Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

H. IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

Geofencing is a location-based service that allows an organization to define and enforce a virtual boundary around a sensitive area, such as a data center. Geofencing can use various technologies, such as GPS, Wi-Fi, cellular data, or RFID, to detect when a mobile device enters or exits the geofence. Geofencing can also trigger certain actions or notifications based on the device’s location. For example, the organization can set up a geofencing policy that sends an alert to the CISO and the device user when a mobile device enters the data center area. Geofencing can also be used to restrict access to certain apps or features based on the device’s location. Verified References:

https://developer.android.com/training/location/geofencing

https://www.manageengine.com/mobile-device-management/mdm-geofencing.html

https://www.koombea.com/blog/mobile-geofencing/

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest

https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of servers that can cache content close to end users, allowing for faster and more efficient delivery of web content, such as images, videos, and streaming media. A CDN can also handle an increase in customer demand of resources, provide high-quality streaming media, and create a user-friendly interface by reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also improve the security and availability of the website by mitigating DDoS attacks and providing redundancy. Verified References:

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cdn/what-is-a-cdn/

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-overview

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Content_delivery_network

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.co m/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server

https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack

https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks

https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

Initiate a legal hold.

Refer to the retention policy

Perform e-discovery.

Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/

https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must also ensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 36]

In a shared responsibility model for PaaS, the customer’s responsibility is OS security. PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud service model that provides a platform for customers to develop, run, and manage applications without having to deal with the underlying infrastructure. The cloud provider is responsible for the physical security, network security, and host infrastructure of the platform, while the customer is responsible for the security of the operating system, the application, and the data. The customer needs to ensure that the operating system is patched, configured, and protected from malware and unauthorized access. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/shared-responsibility

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/shared-responsibility-model.html

Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 273]

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

Public keys on both endpoints are required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates are issued by trusted authorities called Certificate Authorities (CAs), and can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders. Mutual authentication is a process in which two parties authenticate each other at the same time using certificates. Mutual authentication can provide stronger security and privacy than one-way authentication, where only one party is authenticated. In PKI-based mutual authentication, each party has a certificate that contains its public key and identity information, and a private key that corresponds to its public key. The private key is kept secret and never shared with anyone, while the public key is shared and used to verify the identity and signature of the certificate holder. The basic steps of PKI-based mutual authentication are as follows:

Party A sends its certificate to Party B.

Party B verifies Party A’s certificate by checking its validity, signature, and trust chain. If the certificate is valid and trusted, Party B extracts Party A’s public key from the certificate.

Party B generates a random challenge (such as a nonce or a timestamp) and encrypts it with Party A’s public key. Party B sends the encrypted challenge to Party A.

Party A decrypts the challenge with its private key and sends it back to Party B.

Party B compares the received challenge with the original one. If they match, Party B confirms that Party A is the legitimate owner of the certificate and has possession of the private key.

The same steps are repeated in reverse, with Party A verifying Party B’s certificate and sending a challenge encrypted with Party B’s public key.

A. Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a property of encryption protocols that ensures that the compromise of a long-term secret key (such as a private key) does not affect the security of past or future session keys (such as symmetric keys). PFS can enhance the security and privacy of encrypted communications, but it does not provide authentication by itself.

B. Shared secret for both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Shared secret is a method of authentication that relies on a pre-shared piece of information (such as a password or a passphrase) that is known only to both parties. Shared secret can provide simple and fast authentication, but it does not provide non-repudiation or identity verification.

D. A common public key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common public key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and private key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

E. A common private key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common private key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and public key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).

However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:

The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.

The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.

The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider’s support, which may depend on the provider’s size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.

In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:

Affect the organization’s ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.

Expose the organization’s network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.

Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.

The company should implement OCSP stapling and HSTS to improve TLS performance and enforce HTTPS. OCSP stapling is a technique that allows a server to provide a signed proof of the validity of its certificate along with the TLS handshake, instead of relying on the client to contact the certificate authority (CA) for verification. This can reduce the latency and bandwidth of the TLS handshake, as well as improve the privacy and security of the certificate status. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security, which is a mechanism that instructs browsers to only use HTTPS when connecting to a website, and to reject any unencrypted or invalid connections. This can prevent downgrade attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and mixed content errors, as well as improve the performance of HTTPS connections by avoiding unnecessary redirects. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/OCSP-stapling

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/HTTP-Strict-Transport-Security

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ssl/what-is-hsts/

Establishing one-way trust from Company B to Company A would allow users from Company B to access Company A’s resources using their existing credentials. Implementing attribute-based access control would allow users to have different sets of rights and privileges based on their attributes, such as department and IP address. Verified References:

https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/access-management/what-is-sso/

https://frontegg.com/blog/a-complete-guide-to-implementing-single-sign-on

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/host-integration-server/esso/enterprise-single-sign-on-basics

The company should use CASB for OAuth application permission control to help prevent this type of attack in the future. CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool that monitors and enforces security policies for cloud applications. CASB can help control which third-party applications can access the company’s cloud file storage service and what permissions they have. CASB can also detect and block any unauthorized or malicious applications that try to access the company’s data. Verified References:

https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/threats/how-to-avoid-social-engineering-attacks

https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/ethical-hacking/understanding-preventing-social-engineering-attacks/

https://www.indusface.com/blog/10-ways-businesses-can-prevent-social-engineering-attacks/

WPA3-Personal is a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. It uses a new security protocol called Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange with a more secure way to do initial key exchange. SAE also provides forward secrecy, which means that even if the password is compromised, the attacker cannot decrypt past or future data. WPA3-Personal also uses AES-128 in CCM mode as the minimum encryption algorithm, which is resistant to offline password attacks. WPA3-Personal requires low administrative overhead and supports a single SSID with no guest access. Verified References:

https://www.diffen.com/difference/WPA2_vs_WPA3

https://www.thewindowsclub.com/wpa3-personal-enterprise-wi-fi-encryption

https://www.teldat.com/blog/wpa3-wi-fi-network-security-wpa3-personal-wpa3-enterprise/

 Disabling file exchange can help to minimize data leakage by preventing users from sharing sensitive documents or data through the videoconferencing platform. Enabling watermarking can help to maintain customer trust and ensure non-repudiation by adding a visible or invisible mark to the video stream that identifies the source or owner of the content. Enabling the user authentication requirement can help to secure the videoconferencing sessions by verifying the identity of the participants and preventing unauthorized access. Verified References:

https://www.rev.com/blog/marketing/follow-these-7-video-conferencing-security-best-practices

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/blog/2020/04/network-video-conferencing-security/

https://www.megameeting.com/news/best-practices-secure-video-conferencing/

An immutable system is a system that does not change after it is deployed. Any changes or updates are done by creating a new system from a common image or template and replacing the old one. An immutable system meets the requirements of storing data outside of the VMs, preventing unauthorized modifications to the VMs, and deploying a new VM if a change needs to be done. An immutable system can improve the security, reliability, and consistency of the VMs by avoiding configuration drift, human errors, or malicious tampering. An immutable system can also simplify the deployment process and enable faster recovery from failures. Verified References:

https://cloudinfrastructureservices.co.uk/vm-types-for-devops-pets-vs-cattle-vs-immutable/

https://www.digitalocean.com/community/tutorials/what-is-immutable-infrastructure

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]

OPC (Open Platform Communications) and Modbus are two common protocols used for industrial control systems (ICS). OPC is a standard that allows different devices and applications to exchange data in a vendor-neutral way. Modbus is a serial communication protocol that enables devices to send and receive commands and data over a network. Modbus has two variants: Modbus TCP/IP, which uses TCP port 502 for communication, and Modbus RTU/ASCII, which uses serial ports.

To allow an OPC server to communicate with a Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays, the security engineer should recommend restricting inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502. This configuration would:

Permit the OPC server to send commands and data to the Modbus server using Modbus TCP/IP protocol over port 502.

Limit operational disruptions, by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the Modbus server from other sources.

Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, such as lack of encryption and authentication, restricting inbound traffic is a necessary security measure to protect the integrity and availability of the ICS.

Remotely wiping the device is the best way to secure the data on the lost device, as it would erase all the data and prevent unauthorized access. Requiring a VPN to be active to access company data may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Setting up different profiles based on the person’s risk may not prevent data loss or theft, as it depends on the level of access and encryption. Requiring MFA to access company applications may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-byod https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-sou rce/resources/casp-content-guide