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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Questions 5

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Questions 6

Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

Options:

A.

Cloud storage management and governance

B.

Data center infrastructure and architecture

C.

IAM and networking

D.

Application development and deployment

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Questions 7

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Questions 8

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Questions 9

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

Options:

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Questions 10

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

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Questions 11

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

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Questions 12

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

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Questions 13

Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

Options:

A.

Relies only on automated security testing tools

B.

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

C.

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

D.

Integrates security early in the development process

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Questions 14

Which of the following functionalities is provided by Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) tools?

Options:

A.

Firewall management and configuration

B.

User activity monitoring and reporting

C.

Encryption of all data at rest and in transit

D.

Visualization and management for cloud data security

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Questions 15

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Questions 16

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Questions 17

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 18

Which practice minimizes human error in long-running cloud workloads’ security management?

Options:

A.

Increasing manual security audits frequency

B.

Converting all workloads to ephemeral

C.

Restricting access to workload configurations

D.

Implementing automated security and compliance checks

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Questions 19

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

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Questions 20

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

Options:

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Questions 21

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

Options:

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Questions 22

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

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Questions 23

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

Options:

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Questions 24

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logs for threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

Options:

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

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Questions 25

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Questions 26

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

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Questions 27

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Questions 28

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenant technologies?

Options:

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

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Questions 29

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Questions 30

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

Options:

A.

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.

Ensure all users have the same level of access

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Questions 31

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Questions 32

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

Options:

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

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Questions 33

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

Options:

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

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Questions 34

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

Options:

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

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Questions 35

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Questions 36

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Questions 37

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

Options:

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Questions 38

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

Options:

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Questions 39

Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

Options:

A.

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

B.

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

C.

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

D.

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

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Questions 40

REST APIs are the standard for web-based services because they run over HTTPS and work well across diverse environments.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 41

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 42

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 43

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Questions 44

Which data security control is the LEAST likely to be assigned to an IaaS provider?

Options:

A.

Application logic

B.

Access controls

C.

Encryption solutions

D.

Physical destruction

E.

Asset management and tracking

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Questions 45

Audits should be robustly designed to reflect best practice, appropriate resources, and tested protocols and standards. They should also use what type of auditors?

Options:

A.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud customer

B.

Independent auditors

C.

Certified by CSA

D.

Auditors working in the interest of the cloud provider

E.

None of the above

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

Options:

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 47

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Questions 48

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

Options:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Questions 49

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

Options:

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

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Questions 50

What is true of a workload?

Options:

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

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Questions 51

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

Options:

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

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Questions 52

ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Options:

A.

Sales

B.

Marketing

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Auditors

E.

Accounting

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Questions 53

Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 54

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

Options:

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Questions 55

How does virtualized storage help avoid data loss if a drive fails?

Options:

A.

Multiple copies in different locations

B.

Drives are backed up, swapped, and archived constantly

C.

Full back ups weekly

D.

Data loss is unavoidable with drive failures

E.

Incremental backups daily

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Questions 56

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

Options:

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

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Questions 57

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

Options:

A.

Data protection

B.

Professional negligence

C.

Globalization

D.

Intellectual property

E.

Outsourcing services and changes in control

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Questions 58

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

Options:

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Questions 59

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

Options:

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

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Questions 60

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

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Questions 61

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

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Questions 62

Which cloud-based service model enables companies to provide client-based access for partners to databases or applications?

Options:

A.

Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)

B.

Desktop-as-a-service (DaaS)

C.

Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)

D.

Identity-as-a-service (IDaaS)

E.

Software-as-a-service (SaaS)

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Questions 63

Vulnerability assessments cannot be easily integrated into CI/CD pipelines because of provider restrictions.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 64

How can web security as a service be deployed for a cloud consumer?

Options:

A.

By proxying or redirecting web traffic to the cloud provider

B.

By utilizing a partitioned network drive

C.

On the premise through a software or appliance installation

D.

Both A and C

E.

None of the above

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Questions 65

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 66

What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)?

Options:

A.

Lack of visibility

B.

Deployment flexibility

C.

Scaling and costs

D.

Intelligence sharing

E.

Insulation of clients

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Questions 67

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

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Questions 68

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Options:

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Questions 69

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

Options:

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

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Questions 70

How can Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies on keys ensure adherence to the principle of least privilege?

Options:

A.

By rotating keys on a regular basis

B.

By using default policies for all keys

C.

By specifying fine-grained permissions

D.

By granting root access to administrators

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Questions 71

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

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Questions 72

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

Options:

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Questions 73

How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

Options:

A.

It consolidates logs into a single location.

B.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

C.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

D.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

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Questions 74

When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Options:

A.

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

B.

Block storage

C.

File storage

D.

Object storage

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Questions 75

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Questions 76

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Questions 77

How does the variability in Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems across cloud providers impact a multi-cloud strategy?

Options:

A.

Adds complexity by requiring separate configurations and integrations.

B.

Ensures better security by offering diverse IAM models.

C.

Reduces costs by leveraging different pricing models.

D.

Simplifies the management by providing standardized IAM protocols.

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Questions 78

Which of the following best describes the primary benefit of utilizing cloud telemetry sources in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

They reduce the cost of cloud services.

B.

They provide visibility into cloud environments.

C.

They enhance physical security.

D.

They encrypt cloud data at rest.

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Questions 79

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

Options:

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Questions 80

Which concept focuses on maintaining the same configuration for all infrastructure components, ensuring they do not change once deployed?

Options:

A.

Component credentials

B.

Immutable infrastructure

C.

Infrastructure as code

D.

Application integration

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Questions 81

What is a key advantage of using Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC) for cloud-based access management?

Options:

A.

PBAC eliminates the need for defining and managing user roles and permissions.

B.

PBAC is easier to implement and manage compared to Role-Based Access Control (RBAC).

C.

PBAC allows enforcement of granular, context-aware security policies using multiple attributes.

D.

PBAC ensures that access policies are consistent across all cloud providers and platforms.

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Questions 82

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Questions 83

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Questions 84

How does artificial intelligence pose both opportunities and risks in cloud security?

Options:

A.

AI enhances security without any adverse implications

B.

AI mainly reduces manual work with no significant security impacts

C.

AI enhances detection mechanisms but could be exploited for sophisticated attacks

D.

AI is only beneficial in data management, not security

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Questions 85

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

Options:

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Questions 86

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

Options:

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

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Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSK v5.0)
Last Update: Apr 24, 2025
Questions: 288

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