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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

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Questions 5

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

Options:

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

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Questions 6

Which of the following is MOST helpful for determining which information security policies should be implemented by an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Industry best practices

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Questions 7

Which of the following BEST facilitates effective incident response testing?

Options:

A.

Including all business units in testing

B.

Simulating realistic test scenarios

C.

Reviewing test results quarterly

D.

Testing after major business changes

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

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Questions 9

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 10

Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence on the successful adoption of an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Security policies

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Security management processes

D.

Organizational culture

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Questions 11

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 12

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

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Questions 13

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

Options:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

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Questions 14

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

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Questions 15

An information security manager finds that a soon-to-be deployed online application will increase risk beyond acceptable levels, and necessary controls have not been included. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Instruct IT to deploy controls based on urgent business needs.

B.

Present a business case for additional controls to senior management.

C.

Solicit bids for compensating control products.

D.

Recommend a different application.

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Questions 16

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

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Questions 17

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 18

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

Options:

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

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Questions 20

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

Options:

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

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Questions 21

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 23

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

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Questions 24

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

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Questions 25

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 27

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Questions 28

An organization is implementing an information security governance framework. To communicate the program's effectiveness to stakeholders, it is MOST important to establish:

Options:

A.

a control self-assessment (CSA) process.

B.

automated reporting to stakeholders.

C.

a monitoring process for the security policy.

D.

metrics for each milestone.

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Questions 29

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

Options:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place as a basis for developing an effective information security program that supports the organization's business goals?

Options:

A.

Metrics to drive the information security program

B.

Information security policies

C.

A defined security organizational structure

D.

An information security strategy

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Questions 31

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 32

A PRIMARY purpose of creating security policies is to:

Options:

A.

define allowable security boundaries.

B.

communicate management's security expectations.

C.

establish the way security tasks should be executed.

D.

implement management's security governance strategy.

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Questions 33

An organization finds it necessary to quickly shift to a work-fromhome model with an increased need for remote access security.

Which of the following should be given immediate focus?

Options:

A.

Moving to a zero trust access model

B.

Enabling network-level authentication

C.

Enhancing cyber response capability

D.

Strengthening endpoint security

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Questions 34

IT projects have gone over budget with too many security controls being added post-production. Which of the following would MOST help to ensure that relevant controls are applied to a project?

Options:

A.

Involving information security at each stage of project management

B.

Identifying responsibilities during the project business case analysis

C.

Creating a data classification framework and providing it to stakeholders

D.

Providing stakeholders with minimum information security requirements

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Questions 35

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular reviews of the cybersecurity threat landscape?

Options:

A.

To compare emerging trends with the existing organizational security posture

B.

To communicate worst-case scenarios to senior management

C.

To train information security professionals to mitigate new threats

D.

To determine opportunities for expanding organizational information security

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Questions 36

A cloud application used by an organization is found to have a serious vulnerability. After assessing the risk, which of the following would be the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Instruct the vendor to conduct penetration testing.

B.

Suspend the connection to the application in the firewall

C.

Report the situation to the business owner of the application.

D.

Initiate the organization's incident response process.

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Questions 37

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

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Questions 38

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

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Questions 39

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

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Questions 40

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

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Questions 42

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

Options:

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

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Questions 43

If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:

Options:

A.

contact law enforcement.

B.

document the chain of custody.

C.

capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.

D.

reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.

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Questions 44

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 45

When choosing the best controls to mitigate risk to acceptable levels, the information security manager's decision should be MAINLY driven by:

Options:

A.

best practices.

B.

control framework

C.

regulatory requirements.

D.

cost-benefit analysis,

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Questions 46

An information security manager developing an incident response plan MUST ensure it includes:

Options:

A.

an inventory of critical data.

B.

criteria for escalation.

C.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

critical infrastructure diagrams.

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Questions 47

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

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Questions 48

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

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Questions 49

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for granting a security exception?

Options:

A.

The risk is justified by the cost to the business.

B.

The risk is justified by the benefit to security.

C.

The risk is justified by the cost to security.

D.

The risk is justified by the benefit to the business.

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Questions 50

Which of the following BEST ensures information security governance is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

A security steering committee including IT representation

B.

A consistent risk management approach

C.

An information security risk register

D.

Integration of security reporting into corporate reporting

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Questions 51

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

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Questions 52

Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Strong senior management support

B.

Gomputer-based training

C.

Arobust incident response program

D.

Adequate security funding

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Questions 53

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Compatibility with legacy systems

B.

Application of corporate hardening standards

C.

Integration with existing access controls

D.

Unknown vulnerabilities

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Questions 54

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is a desired outcome of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Improved risk management

C.

Business agility

D.

A maturity model

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Questions 56

Which of the following would be MOST useful to a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with developing and implementing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The capabilities and expertise of the information security team

B.

The organization's mission statement and roadmap

C.

A prior successful information security strategy

D.

The organization's information technology (IT) strategy

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Questions 57

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B.

are more objective than information security management.

C.

can see the overall impact to the business.

D.

can balance the technical and business risks.

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Questions 58

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

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Questions 59

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

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Questions 60

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

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Questions 61

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

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Questions 62

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

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Questions 63

An incident management team is alerted ta a suspected security event. Before classifying the suspected event as a security incident, it is MOST important for the security manager to:

Options:

A.

notify the business process owner.

B.

follow the business continuity plan (BCP).

C.

conduct an incident forensic analysis.

D.

follow the incident response plan.

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Questions 64

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

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Questions 65

Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

Options:

A.

Parallel test

B.

Full interruption test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Tabletop test

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Questions 66

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

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Questions 67

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when aligning a security awareness program with the organization's business strategy?

Options:

A.

Regulations and standards

B.

People and culture

C.

Executive and board directives

D.

Processes and technology

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the MOST important factor of a successful information security program?

Options:

A.

The program follows industry best practices.

B.

The program is based on a well-developed strategy.

C.

The program is cost-efficient and within budget,

D.

The program is focused on risk management.

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Questions 69

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

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Questions 70

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a threat intelligence report indicates a large number of ransomware attacks targeting the industry?

Options:

A.

Increase the frequency of system backups.

B.

Review the mitigating security controls.

C.

Notify staff members of the threat.

D.

Assess the risk to the organization.

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Questions 71

An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an impact assessment.

B.

Isolate the affected systems.

C.

Rebuild the affected systems.

D.

Initiate incident response.

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Questions 72

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 73

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 74

The PRIMARY benefit of introducing a single point of administration in network monitoring is that it:

Options:

A.

reduces unauthorized access to systems.

B.

promotes efficiency in control of the environment.

C.

prevents inconsistencies in information in the distributed environment.

D.

allows administrative staff to make management decisions.

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Questions 75

Which of the following parties should be responsible for determining access levels to an application that processes client information?

Options:

A.

The business client

B.

The information security tear

C.

The identity and access management team

D.

Business unit management

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Questions 76

An organization is increasingly using Software as a Service (SaaS) to replace in-house hosting and support of IT applications. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to help ensure procurement decisions consider information security concerns?

Options:

A.

Integrate information security risk assessments into the procurement process.

B.

Provide regular information security training to the procurement team.

C.

Invite IT members into regular procurement team meetings to influence best practice.

D.

Enforce the right to audit in procurement contracts with SaaS vendors.

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Questions 77

Which of the following is MOST helpful for protecting an enterprise from advanced persistent threats (APTs)?

Options:

A.

Updated security policies

B.

Defined security standards

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Regular antivirus updates

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Questions 78

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Questions 79

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

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Questions 81

An organization is considering using a third party to host sensitive archived data. Which of the following is MOST important to verify before entering into the relationship?

Options:

A.

The vendor's data centers are in the same geographic region.

B.

The encryption keys are not provisled to the vendor.

C.

The vendor's controls are in line with the organization's security standards.

D.

Independent audits of the vendor's operations are regularly conducted.

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Questions 82

The PRIMARY objective of timely declaration of a disaster is to:

Options:

A.

ensure engagement of business management in the recovery process.

B.

assess and correct disaster recovery process deficiencies.

C.

protect critical physical assets from further loss.

D.

ensure the continuity of the organization's essential services.

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Questions 83

An information security manager is working to incorporate media communication procedures into the security incident communication plan. It would be MOST important to include:

Options:

A.

a directory of approved local media contacts

B.

pre-prepared media statements

C.

procedures to contact law enforcement

D.

a single point of contact within the organization

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Questions 84

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when performing triage of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Containing the affected system

B.

Preserving the forensic image

C.

Comparing backup against production

D.

Removing the malware

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Questions 85

To inform a risk treatment decision, which of the following should the information security manager compare with the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

Level of risk treatment

C.

Configuration parameters

D.

Gap analysis results

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Questions 86

What is the MOST important consideration when establishing metrics for reporting to the information security strategy committee?

Options:

A.

Developing a dashboard for communicating the metrics

B.

Agreeing on baseline values for the metrics

C.

Benchmarking the expected value of the metrics against industry standards

D.

Aligning the metrics with the organizational culture

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Questions 87

An information security manager is assisting in the development of the request for proposal (RFP) for a new outsourced service. This will require the third party to have access to critical business information. The security manager should focus PRIMARILY on defining:

Options:

A.

service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

security requirements for the process being outsourced.

C.

risk-reporting methodologies.

D.

security metrics

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Questions 88

Following an employee security awareness training program, what should be the expected outcome?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of viruses detected in incoming emails

B.

A decrease in reported social engineering attacks

C.

An increase in reported social engineering attempts

D.

An increase in user-reported false positive incidents

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Questions 89

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Reviewing previous audit reports

B.

Conducting a tabletop exercise

C.

Benchmarking the plan against best practices

D.

Performing a penetration test

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Questions 90

Which type of plan is PRIMARILY intended to reduce the potential impact of security events that may occur?

Options:

A.

Security awareness plan

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Incident response plan

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Questions 91

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

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Questions 92

A new application has entered the production environment with deficient technical security controls. Which of the following is MOST Likely the root cause?

Options:

A.

Inadequate incident response controls

B.

Lack of legal review

C.

Inadequate change control

D.

Lack of quality control

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Questions 93

The MOST useful technique for maintaining management support for the information security program is:

Options:

A.

informing management about the security of business operations.

B.

implementing a comprehensive security awareness and training program.

C.

identifying the risks and consequences of failure to comply with standards.

D.

benchmarking the security programs of comparable organizations.

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Questions 94

Which of the following incident response phases involves actions to help safeguard critical systems while maintaining business operations?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Identification

C.

Containment

D.

Preparation

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Questions 95

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to identify and contain security incidents?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Threat modeling

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Tabletop exercises

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Questions 96

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

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Questions 97

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in patch management procedures when receiving an emergency security patch?

Options:

A.

Schedule patching based on the criticality.

B.

Install the patch immediately to eliminate the vulnerability.

C.

Conduct comprehensive testing of the patch.

D.

Validate the authenticity of the patch.

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Questions 98

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the information security investment process?

Options:

A.

IT governance framework

B.

Information security policy

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 99

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of using a cloud access security broker when migrating to a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Enhanced data governance

B.

Increased third-party assurance

C.

)Improved incident management

D.

Reduced total cost of ownership (TCO)

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Questions 100

Which of the following would be MOST useful when determining the business continuity strategy for a large organization's data center?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback analysis

B.

Business continuity risk analysis

C.

Incident root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 101

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 102

When drafting the corporate privacy statement for a public website, which of the following MUST be included?

Options:

A.

Limited liability clause

B.

Explanation of information usage

C.

Information encryption requirements

D.

Access control requirements

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Questions 103

Which of the following is the BEST reason for senior management to support a business case for developing a monitoring system for a critical application?

Options:

A.

An industry peer experienced a recent breach with a similar application.

B.

The system can be replicated for additional use cases.

C.

The cost of implementing the system is less than the impact of downtime.

D.

The solution is within the organization's risk tolerance.

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Questions 104

For event logs to be acceptable for incident investigation, which of the following is the MOST important consideration to establish chain of evidence?

Options:

A.

Centralized logging

B.

Time clock synchronization

C.

Available forensic tools

D.

Administrator log access

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

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Questions 106

An organization is considering the feasibility of implementing a big data solution to analyze customer data. In order to support this initiative, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

inventory sensitive customer data to be processed by the solution.

B.

determine information security resource and budget requirements.

C.

assess potential information security risk to the organization.

D.

develop information security requirements for the big data solution.

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Questions 107

An organization has been penalized by regulatory authorities for failing to notify them of a major security breach that may have compromised customer data. Which of the following is MOST likely in need of review and updating to prevent similar penalties in the future?

Options:

A.

Information security policies and procedures

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Incident communication plan

D.

Incident response training program

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Questions 108

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge with assessing emerging risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of a risk framework

B.

Ineffective security controls

C.

Presence of known vulnerabilities

D.

Incomplete identification of threats

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Questions 109

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

Options:

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

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Questions 110

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect security incidents?

Options:

A.

Analyze recent security risk assessments.

B.

Analyze security anomalies.

C.

Analyze penetration test results.

D.

Analyze vulnerability assessments.

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Questions 111

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after identifying suspicious activity on a PC that is not in the organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Isolate the PC from the network

B.

Perform a vulnerability scan

C.

Determine why the PC is not included in the inventory

D.

Reinforce information security training

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Questions 112

Which of the following is MOST important to maintain integration among the incident response plan, business continuity plan (BCP). and disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Asset classification

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Escalation procedures

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Questions 113

Company A, a cloud service provider, is in the process of acquiring Company B to gain new benefits by incorporating their technologies within its cloud services.

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of Company A's information security manager?

Options:

A.

The organizational structure of Company B

B.

The cost to align to Company A's security policies

C.

Company A's security architecture

D.

Company B's security policies

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Questions 114

A risk owner has accepted a large amount of risk due to the high cost of controls. Which of the following should be the information security manager's PRIMARY focus in this situation?

Options:

A.

Establishing a strong ongoing risk monitoring process

B.

Presenting the risk profile for approval by the risk owner

C.

Conducting an independent review of risk responses

D.

Updating the information security standards to include the accepted risk

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Questions 115

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

Options:

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

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Questions 116

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

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Questions 117

A data loss prevention (DLP) tool has flagged personally identifiable information (Pll) during transmission. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Validate the scope and impact with the business process owner.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Review and validate the rules within the DLP system.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management.

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the business continuity plan (BCP) is current?

Options:

A.

Manage business process changes.

B.

Update business impact analyses (BIAs) on a regular basis.

C.

Conduct periodic testing.

D.

Review and update emergency contact lists.

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Questions 119

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

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Questions 120

Which of the following is the BEST source of information to support an organization's information security vision and strategy?

Options:

A.

Metrics dashboard

B.

Governance policies

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Enterprise information security architecture

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Questions 121

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an acceptable use policy?

Options:

A.

To provide steps for carrying out security-related procedures

B.

To facilitate enforcement of security process workflows

C.

To protect the organization from misuse of information assets

D.

To provide minimum security baselines for information assets

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Questions 122

The PRIMARY consideration when responding to a ransomware attack should be to ensure:

Options:

A.

backups are available.

B.

the most recent patches have been applied.

C.

the ransomware attack is contained

D.

the business can operate

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Questions 123

Which of the following is a viable containment strategy for a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Block IP addresses used by the attacker

B.

Redirect the attacker's traffic

C.

Disable firewall ports exploited by the attacker.

D.

Power off affected servers

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Questions 124

Which of the following is the BEST defense against a brute force attack?

Options:

A.

Time-of-day restrictions

B.

Mandatory access control

C.

Discretionary access control

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

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Questions 125

The MOST important information for influencing management’s support of information security is:

Options:

A.

an demonstration of alignment with the business strategy.

B.

An identification of the overall threat landscape.

C.

A report of a successful attack on a competitor.

D.

An identification of organizational risks.

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Questions 126

When assigning a risk owner, the MOST important consideration is to ensure the owner has:

Options:

A.

adequate knowledge of risk treatment and related control activities.

B.

decision-making authority and the ability to allocate resources for risk.

C.

sufficient time for monitoring and managing the risk effectively.

D.

risk communication and reporting skills to enable decision-making.

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Questions 127

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when updating procedures for managing security devices?

Options:

A.

Updates based on the organization's security framework

B.

Notification to management of the procedural changes

C.

Updates based on changes m risk technology and process

D.

Review and approval of procedures by management

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Questions 128

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

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Questions 129

An external security audit has reported multiple instances of control noncompliance. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Control owner responses based on a root cause analysis

B.

The impact of noncompliance on the organization's risk profile

C.

A noncompliance report to initiate remediation activities

D.

A business case for transferring the risk

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Questions 130

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of security incidents from targeted email attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system

B.

Disable all incoming cloud mail services

C.

Conduct awareness training across the organization

D.

Require acknowledgment of the acceptable use policy

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Questions 131

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring that incident management plans are executed effectively?

Options:

A.

Management support and approval has been obtained.

B.

The incident response team has the appropriate training.

C.

An incident response maturity assessment has been conducted.

D.

A reputable managed security services provider has been engaged.

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Questions 132

To inform a risk treatment decision, which of the following should the information security manager compare with the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis results

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Level of risk treatment

D.

Configuration parameters

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Questions 133

When preventive controls to appropriately mitigate risk are not feasible, which of the following is the MOST important action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Managing the impact

B.

Identifying unacceptable risk levels

C.

Assessing vulnerabilities

D.

Evaluating potential threats

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Questions 134

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure compliance with an organization's information security requirements by an IT service provider?

Options:

A.

Requiring an external security audit of the IT service provider

B.

Requiring regular reporting from the IT service provider

C.

Defining information security requirements with internal IT

D.

Defining the business recovery plan with the IT service provider

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Questions 135

When an organization lacks internal expertise to conduct highly technical forensics investigations, what is the BEST way to ensure effective and timely investigations following an information security incident?

Options:

A.

Purchase forensic standard operating procedures.

B.

Provide forensics training to the information security team.

C.

Ensure the incident response policy allows hiring a forensics firm.

D.

Retain a forensics firm prior to experiencing an incident.

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Questions 136

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

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Questions 137

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure alignment of the information security program with organizational objectives?

Options:

A.

Establish an information security steering committee.

B.

Employ a process-based approach for information asset classification.

C.

Utilize an industry-recognized risk management framework.

D.

Provide security awareness training to board executives.

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Questions 138

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program's value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

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Questions 139

After updating password standards, an information security manager is alerted by various application administrators that the applications they support are incapable of enforcing these standards. The information security manager's FIRST course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

determine the potential impact.

B.

reevaluate the standards.

C.

implement compensating controls.

D.

evaluate the cost of replacing the applications.

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Questions 140

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security policy?

Options:

A.

Best practices

B.

Management objectives

C.

Baselines

D.

Maturity levels

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Questions 141

Which of the following is MOST important to determine following the discovery and eradication of a malware attack?

Options:

A.

The malware entry path

B.

The creator of the malware

C.

The type of malware involved

D.

The method of detecting the malware

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Questions 142

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected

B.

Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

C.

Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level

D.

Confirming the organization complies with security policies

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Questions 143

Following a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have been performed, which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Place the web server in quarantine.

B.

Rebuild the server from the last verified backup.

C.

Shut down the server in an organized manner.

D.

Rebuild the server with relevant patches from the original media.

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Questions 144

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

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Questions 145

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

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Questions 146

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to convey information security responsibilities across an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing security awareness programs

B.

Documenting information security responsibilities within job descriptions

C.

Developing a skills matrix

D.

Defining information security responsibilities in the security policy

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Questions 147

Which of the following BEST facilitates the reporting of useful information about the effectiveness of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk heat map.

B.

Security benchmark report.

C.

Security metrics dashboard.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Questions 148

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

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Questions 149

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase security awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implement regularly scheduled information security audits.

B.

Require signed acknowledgment of information security policies.

C.

Conduct periodic simulated phishing exercises.

D.

Include information security requirements in job descriptions.

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Questions 150

An information security manager has learned of an increasing trend in attacks that use phishing emails impersonating an organization's CEO in an attempt to commit wire transfer fraud. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend wire transfers for the organization.

B.

Provide awareness training to the CEO for this type of phishing attack.

C.

Provide awareness training to staff responsible for wire transfers.

D.

Disable emails for staff responsible for wire transfers.

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Questions 151

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for logging firewall activity?

Options:

A.

Metrics reporting

B.

Firewall tuning

C.

Intrusion prevention

D.

Incident investigation

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Questions 152

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to obtain organizational support for the implementation of security controls?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability assessments

B.

Communicating business impact analysis (BIA) results

C.

Establishing effective stakeholder relationships

D.

Defining the organization's risk management framework

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Questions 153

An information security team plans to strengthen authentication requirements for a customer-facing site, but there are concerns it will negatively impact the user experience. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess business impact against security risk.

B.

Provide security awareness training to customers.

C.

Refer to industry best practices.

D.

Quantify the security risk to the business.

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Questions 154

Which of the following is the BEST way to compete for funding for an information security program in an organization with limited resources?

Options:

A.

Demonstrate the effectiveness of business continuity plans (BCPs).

B.

Report key performance indicator (KPI) trends.

C.

Demonstrate that the program enables business activities.

D.

Provide evidence of increased security events at peer organizations.

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Questions 155

An organization has introduced a new bring your own device (BYOD) program. The security manager has determined that a small number of employees are utilizing free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices. Which of the following is the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Allow the practice to continue temporarily for monitoring purposes.

B.

Disable the employees' remote access to company email and data

C.

Initiate remote wipe of the devices

D.

Assess the business need to provide a secure solution

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Questions 156

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether a firewall has been configured to provide a comprehensive perimeter defense9

Options:

A.

A validation of the current firewall rule set

B.

A port scan of the firewall from an internal source

C.

A ping test from an external source

D.

A simulated denial of service (DoS) attack against the firewall

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Questions 157

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

Options:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

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Questions 158

Which of the following is the BEST approach for data owners to use when defining access privileges for users?

    Define access privileges based on user roles.

    Adopt user account settings recommended by the vendor.

    Perform a risk assessment of the users' access privileges.

Options:

A.

Implement an identity and access management (IDM) tool.

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Questions 159

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

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Questions 160

Labeling information according to its security classification:

Options:

A.

enhances the likelihood of people handling information securely.

B.

reduces the number and type of countermeasures required.

C.

reduces the need to identify baseline controls for each classification.

D.

affects the consequences if information is handled insecurely.

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Questions 161

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents

B.

identify vulnerabilities

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 162

Which of the following is the BEST approach to make strategic information security decisions?

Options:

A.

Establish regular information security status reporting.

B.

Establish an information security steering committee.

C.

Establish business unit security working groups.

D.

Establish periodic senior management meetings.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has a mature information security culture?

Options:

A.

Information security training is mandatory for all staff.

B.

The organization's information security policy is documented and communicated.

C.

The chief information security officer (CISO) regularly interacts with the board.

D.

Staff consistently consider risk in making decisions.

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Questions 164

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

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Questions 165

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Questions 166

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

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Questions 167

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective its contents should be

Options:

A.

focused on information security policy.

B.

aligned to business processes

C.

based on employees' roles

D.

based on recent incidents

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Questions 168

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

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Questions 169

Which of the following is the BEST indication of effective information security governance?

Options:

A.

Information security is considered the responsibility of the entire information security team.

B.

Information security controls are assigned to risk owners.

C.

Information security is integrated into corporate governance.

D.

Information security governance is based on an external security framework.

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Questions 170

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Questions 171

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

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Questions 172

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

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Questions 173

An organization is aligning its incident response capability with a public cloud service provider. What should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify the skill set of the provider's incident response team.

B.

Evaluate the provider's audit logging and monitoring controls.

C.

Review the provider’s incident definitions and notification criteria.

D.

Update the incident escalation process.

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Questions 174

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

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Questions 175

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

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Questions 176

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

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Questions 177

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

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Questions 178

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 179

An organization is creating a risk mitigation plan that considers redundant power supplies to reduce the business risk associated with critical system outages. Which type of control is being considered?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Questions 180

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

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Questions 181

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 182

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

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Questions 183

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

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Questions 184

An information security manager learns through a threat intelligence service that the organization may be targeted for a major emerging threat. Which of the following is the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an information security audit.

B.

Validate the relevance of the information.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Inform senior management

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Questions 185

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

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Questions 186

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

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Questions 187

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

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Questions 188

An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:

Options:

A.

security configuration controls.

B.

assurance that security requirements are met.

C.

guidance for security strategy.

D.

a repository for security systems documentation.

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Questions 189

Which of the following BEST demonstrates the added value of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security baselines

B.

A gap analysis

C.

A SWOT analysis

D.

A balanced scorecard

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Questions 190

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when recovering a compromised system that needs a complete rebuild?

Options:

A.

Patch management files

B.

Network system logs

C.

Configuration management files

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 191

Management has announced the acquisition of a new company. The information security manager of the parent company is concerned that conflicting access rights may cause critical information to be exposed during the integration of the two companies. To BEST address this concern, the information security manager should:

Options:

A.

review access rights as the acquisition integration occurs.

B.

perform a risk assessment of the access rights.

C.

escalate concerns for conflicting access rights to management.

D.

implement consistent access control standards.

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Questions 192

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

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Questions 193

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Questions 194

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

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Questions 195

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a security operations center's wna GY of potential security breaches?

Options:

A.

IT system clocks are not synchronized with the centralized logging server.

B.

Operating systems are no longer supported by the vendor.

C.

The patch management system does not deploy patches in a timely manner.

D.

An organization has a decentralized data center that uses cloud services.

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Questions 196

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

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Questions 197

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

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Questions 198

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 199

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

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Questions 200

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

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Questions 201

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

Options:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

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Questions 202

Prior to conducting a forensic examination, an information security manager should:

Options:

A.

boot the original hard disk on a clean system.

B.

create an image of the original data on new media.

C.

duplicate data from the backup media.

D.

shut down and relocate the server.

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Questions 203

When designing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), which of the following MUST be available in order to prioritize system restoration?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Recovery procedures

D.

Systems inventory

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Questions 204

When developing a business case to justify an information security investment, which of the following would BEST enable an informed decision by senior management?

Options:

A.

The information security strategy

B.

Losses due to security incidents

C.

The results of a risk assessment

D.

Security investment trends in the industry

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Questions 205

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an online company discovers a network attack in progress?

Options:

A.

Dump all event logs to removable media

B.

Isolate the affected network segment

C.

Enable trace logging on ail events

D.

Shut off all network access points

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Questions 207

A user reports a stolen personal mobile device that stores sensitive corporate data. Which of the following will BEST minimize the risk of data exposure?

Options:

A.

Prevent the user from using personal mobile devices.

B.

Report the incident to the police.

C.

Wipe the device remotely.

D.

Remove user's access to corporate data.

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Questions 208

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

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Questions 209

Which of the following would be MOST effective in gaining senior management approval of security investments in network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration tests against the network to demonstrate business vulnerability

B.

Highlighting competitor performance regarding network best security practices

C.

Demonstrating that targeted security controls tie to business objectives

D.

Presenting comparable security implementation estimates from several vendors

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Questions 210

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 211

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

Options:

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Questions 212

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

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Questions 213

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

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Questions 214

An anomaly-based intrusion detection system (IDS) operates by gathering data on:

Options:

A.

normal network behavior and using it as a baseline lor measuring abnormal activity

B.

abnormal network behavior and issuing instructions to the firewall to drop rogue connections

C.

abnormal network behavior and using it as a baseline for measuring normal activity

D.

attack pattern signatures from historical data

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Questions 215

An information security manager determines there are a significant number of exceptions to a newly released industry-required security standard. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document risk acceptances.

B.

Revise the organization's security policy.

C.

Assess the consequences of noncompliance.

D.

Conduct an information security audit.

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Questions 216

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

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Questions 217

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

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Questions 218

A financial company executive is concerned about recently increasing cyberattacks and needs to take action to reduce risk. The organization would BEST respond by:

Options:

A.

increasing budget and staffing levels for the incident response team.

B.

implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS).

C.

revalidating and mitigating risks to an acceptable level.

D.

testing the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 219

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Determine recovery priorities.

B.

Define the recovery point objective (RPO).

C.

Confirm control effectiveness.

D.

Analyze vulnerabilities.

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Questions 220

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the capability to restore clean data after a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Purchase cyber insurance

B.

Encrypt sensitive production data

C.

Perform Integrity checks on backups

D.

Maintain multiple offline backups

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Questions 221

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 222

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to provide ongoing assurance that legal and regulatory compliance requirements can be met?

Options:

A.

Embedding compliance requirements within operational processes

B.

Engaging external experts to provide guidance on changes in compliance requirements

C.

Performing periodic audits for compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Assigning the operations manager accountability for meeting compliance requirements

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Questions 223

An intrusion has been detected and contained. Which of the following steps represents the BEST practice for ensuring the integrity of the recovered system?

Options:

A.

Install the OS, patches, and application from the original source.

B.

Restore the OS, patches, and application from a backup.

C.

Restore the application and data from a forensic copy.

D.

Remove all signs of the intrusion from the OS and application.

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Questions 224

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 225

To overcome the perception that security is a hindrance to business activities, it is important for an information security manager to:

Options:

A.

rely on senior management to enforce security.

B.

promote the relevance and contribution of security.

C.

focus on compliance.

D.

reiterate the necessity of security.

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Questions 226

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

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Questions 227

A newly appointed information security manager of a retailer with multiple stores discovers an HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) vendor has remote access to the stores to enable real-time monitoring and equipment diagnostics. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the vendor.

B.

Review the vendor's technical security controls

C.

Review the vendor contract

D.

Disconnect the real-time access

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Questions 228

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an incident response plan to ensure incidents are responded to by the appropriate individuals?

Options:

A.

Skills required for the incident response team

B.

A list of external resources to assist with incidents

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A detailed incident notification process

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Questions 229

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

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Questions 230

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Questions 231

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

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Questions 232

Which of the following is MOST effective in preventing the introduction of vulnerabilities that may disrupt the availability of a critical business application?

Options:

A.

A patch management process

B.

Version control

C.

Change management controls

D.

Logical access controls

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Questions 233

Which of the following events would MOST likely require a revision to the information security program?

Options:

A.

An increase in industry threat level .

B.

A significant increase in reported incidents

C.

A change in IT management

D.

A merger with another organization

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Questions 234

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority during an information security post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Documenting actions taken in sufficient detail

B.

Updating key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Evaluating the performance of incident response team members

D.

Evaluating incident response effectiveness

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Questions 235

Relationships between critical systems are BEST understood by

Options:

A.

evaluating key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

developing a system classification scheme

D.

evaluating the recovery time objectives (RTOs)

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Questions 236

Which of the following is the BEST technical defense against unauthorized access to a corporate network through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Requiring challenge/response information

B.

Requiring multi factor authentication

C.

Enforcing frequent password changes

D.

Enforcing complex password formats

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Questions 237

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

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Questions 238

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Jan 30, 2025
Questions: 801

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