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CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

Options:

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

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Questions 5

For a company that uses first in, first out (FIFO) inventory accounting, the actual use in production of a recently arrived shipment of more expensive components rather than lower-cost components

previously received will have which of the following results?

Options:

A.

Higher cost of goods sold (COGS)

B.

Lower COGS

C.

No change to COGS

D.

A violation of FIFO rules

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Questions 6

An organization’s security team is looking at ways to minimize the security risk of the container infrastructure. The lead engineer needs to select a suite of remediation actions to minimize risks. Which programmatic approach will result in preventing, detecting , and responding to the GREATEST number of threats aimed at container operations?

Options:

A.

Use of hardware-based countermeasures to provide a basis for trusted computing

B.

Use of container-aware runtime defense tools

C.

Grouping containers with the same sensitivity level on a single host

D.

Adoption of container-specific vulnerability management tools

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Questions 7

A security assessor has been engaged to perform a penetration test on control system components located on a shipping vessel. The individuals on the ship do not have any knowledge of how the component is configured or its internal workings. Which of the following test types does this scenario call for?

Options:

A.

Tandem testing

B.

Blind testing

C.

Double-gray testing

D.

Double-blind testing

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Questions 8

A large organization that processes protected data issues preconfigured laptops to workers who then access systems and data based on their role. As their technology ages, these laptops are replaced with newer devices. What is the BEST solution to mitigate risk associated with these devices?

Options:

A.

Establish a device recycle process.

B.

Establish a process preventing credential storage on devices.

C.

Establish a physical destruction process for the storage medium.

D.

Establish a process for check in and check out of devices.

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Questions 9

Which of the following MUST be in place for security to be effective in an organization?

Options:

A.

Security objectives are documented and in line with the organization’s mission and goals.

B.

Security policies are in line with international standards.

C.

Technology strategy decisions have the involvement and approval of the security organization.

D.

Risk assessments on business plans include security issues as part of the analysis.

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Questions 10

What is the MAIN reason security is considered as part of the system design phase instead of deferring to later phases?

Options:

A.

To ensure complexity introduced by security design is addressed in the beginning stages.

B.

To reduce the overall cost of incorporating security in a system.

C.

To prevent the system from being tampered with in the future.

D.

To prevent the users from performing unauthorized actions during the testing or operational phases.

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Questions 11

A life cycle assessment (LCA) would be used to determine:

Options:

A.

the length of a long-term agreement.

B.

how an Item should be scheduled.

C.

environmental aspects and impacts.

D.

If risk pooling would reduce inventory investment.

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Questions 12

When the discrete available-to-promise (ATP) method is used, the master production receipt quantity is committed to:

Options:

A.

any request for shipment prior to the planning time fence.

B.

any request for shipment prior to the demand time fence (DTF).

C.

requests only for shipment before the next master production schedule (MPS) receipt.

D.

requests only for shipment in the period of the receipt.

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Questions 13

Which of the following may authorize an organization to monitor an employee’s company computer and phone usage?

Options:

A.

Signed Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

B.

Signed Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

C.

ISC2 Code of Ethics

D.

Suspicious that a crime is being committed

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Questions 14

Which of the following Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) components provides the MOST confidentiality for the information that is being transmitted?

Options:

A.

Authentication Header (AH)

B.

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

C.

Encapsulation Security Payload

D.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

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Questions 15

In a lean environment, the batch-size decision for planning "A" items would be done by:

Options:

A.

least total cost.

B.

min-max system.

C.

lot-for-lot (L4L).

D.

periodic order quantity.

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Questions 16

A webmaster has repeatedly used the same certificate sign request to renew an organization's website Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) certificate. What is the MOST significant increased risk for the organization?

Options:

A.

Logical access control against symmetric key

B.

Cryptanalysis against symmetric key

C.

Cryptanalysis against private key

D.

Logical access control against private key

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Questions 17

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Completeness

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Logic

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Questions 18

A company decided not to pursue a business opportunity In a foreign market due to political Instability and currency fluctuations. Which risk control strategy did this business utilize?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Prevention

C.

Recovery

D.

Wait and see

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Questions 19

An organization is designing a new Disaster Recovery (DR) site. What is the BEST option to harden security of the site?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Natural disaster insurance

C.

Natural surveillance

D.

Territorial reinforcement

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Questions 20

Which of the following stock location systems would you use in a repetitive manufacturing, lean environment?

Options:

A.

Fixed location

B.

Floating location

C.

Point-of-use storage

D.

Central storage

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Questions 21

Risk pooling would work best for items with:

Options:

A.

low demand uncertainty and short lead times.

B.

low demand uncertainty and long lead times.

C.

high demand uncertainty and short lead times.

D.

high demand uncertainty and long lead times.

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Questions 22

Cloud computing introduces the concept of the shared responsibility model. This model can MOST accurately be described as defining shared responsibility between which of the following?

Options:

A.

Hosts and guest environments

B.

Operating Systems (OS) and applications

C.

Networks and virtual environments

D.

Customers and providers

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Questions 23

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach. Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Common configuration enumerations

D.

National vulnerabilities database

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Questions 24

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

Options:

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

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Questions 25

An organization has decided to give decommissioned computers to a school in a developing country. The company data handling policy prohibits the storage of confidential and sensitive data. What would be the BEST technique to use to avoid data remanence, and to minimize the operational burden for the inheriting school?

Options:

A.

Overwriting the hard disk drive of the computers

B.

Encrypting the hard disk drive of the computers

C.

Removing and physically destroying the hard disk drive of the computers

D.

Degaussing the hard disk drive of the computers

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Questions 26

An organization is preparing to deploy Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) to its workforce. The primary concerns of the organization are cost and security. The organization realizes that their entire workforce has computers and smartphones. Which of the following is BEST suited to address the organization's concerns?

Options:

A.

Soft token

B.

Short Message Service (SMS)

C.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

D.

Hard token

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Questions 27

Which of the following statements is an assumption on which the economic order quantity (EOQ) model is based?

Options:

A.

Customer demand is known but seasonal.

B.

Items are purchased and/or produced continuously and not in batches.

C.

Order preparation costs and inventory-carrying costs are constant and known.

D.

Holding costs, as a percentage of the unit cost, are variable.

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Questions 28

A customer of a financial Institution denies that a transaction occurred. Which of the following is used to provide evidence evidence that the customer performed the transaction?

Options:

A.

Authorization controls

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Non-repudiation controls

D.

Access audit

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Questions 29

The question below is based on the following information:

CPIM-8.0 Question 29

Work Center 1 has an available capacity of 1,200 hours per month. Which of the following amounts represents the cumulative difference between the required capacity and the available capacity of Months 1 through 3?

Options:

A.

50

B.

150

C.

1.250

D.

3.750

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Questions 30

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of sharing assessment results among key organizational officials across information boundaries?

Options:

A.

Facilitates development of organization-wide security metrics

B.

Allows management to assess which organizational elements have the best security practices

C.

Provides the organization a wider view of systemic weaknesses and deficiencies in their information systems

D.

Identifies areas that require additional training emphasis in each organizational element

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Questions 31

Which of the following environments is most suitable for the use of kanban systems?

Options:

A.

Short product life cycles

B.

High levels of customization

C.

Intermittent production

D.

Stable and predictable demand

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Questions 32

What is the BEST way to plan for power disruptions when implementing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Empty jugs which can easily be filled up with water.

B.

Stock up on generator fuel and execute a generator test.

C.

Request bids for inexpensive generators.

D.

Purchase a contract with a secondary power provider.

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Questions 33

What is the PRIMARY secure protocol used by a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

Options:

A.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

B.

Secure shell (SSH)

C.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

D.

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

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Questions 34

An organization has a legacy application used in production. Security updates are no longer provided, which makes the legacy application vulnerable. The legacy application stores Social Security numbers and credit card numbers. Which actions will BEST reduce the risk?

Options:

A.

Submit a security exception for the application and remove it from vulnerability scanning

B.

Report to the privacy officer and increase logging and monitoring of the application

C.

Continue to operate and monitor the application until it is no longer needed

D.

Implement compensating controls and prioritize upgrading the application

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Questions 35

What is the MOST effective way to begin a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the policy, objectives, mandate, and commitment to manage risk

B.

Learning the organization's ability to accept and/or manage risks

C.

Identifying the resources available to manage risks within the organization

D.

Identifying the nature of the risks faced by the organization

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Questions 36

An OpenID Connect (OIDC) authorization server received two requests from a client. The server identifies the request as replay attack and rejects the request. Which of the following BEST describes these requests?

Options:

A.

One of the requests does not have a valid token issuer's identifier.

B.

The requests have the same 'auth_time' parameter.

C.

The requests have the same 'nonce' parameter.

D.

One of the requests does not have a valid audience token.

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Questions 37

An organization wants to establish an information security program and has assigned a security analyst to put it in place. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop and implement an information security standards manual.

B.

security control review.

C.

Perform a risk assessment to establish baseline security.

D.

Implement security access control software.

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Questions 38

A computer forensic analyst is examining suspected malware from a computer system post-attack. Upon reverse engineering the code, the analyst sees several concerning instructions. One of those concerning instructions is that it installs a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) rootkit, and when the system is then rebooted, the BIOS checks for a certain unknown program to be installed. Which security feature MOST likely would have detected and prevented this type of attack if already on the system?

Options:

A.

Operating System (OS) virtualization

B.

Memory protection

C.

Cryptographic module

D.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

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Questions 39

In which cloud computing model is Identify And Access Management (IAM) the responsibility of a service provider?

Options:

A.

Software As A Service (SaaS).

B.

Platform As A Service (PaaS).

C.

Desktop As A Service (DaaS).

D.

Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS).

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Questions 40

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

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Questions 41

What can help a security professional assess and mitigate vulnerabilities of an embedded device?

Options:

A.

Conduct black-box testing.

B.

Conduct red-box testing.

C.

Conduct yellow-box testing.

D.

Conduct green-box testing.

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Questions 42

An organization is implementing improvements to secure the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC). When should defensive three modeling occur?

Options:

A.

Standards review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Design and requirements gathering

D.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Questions 43

An organization is attempting to address the security risk introduced by employees writing down door entry passcodes. Which of the following security measures BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Privileged Access Management (PAM) policy

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Video log monitoring

D.

Notification alerts

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Questions 44

When assessing a new vendor as a possible business partner, what would BEST demonstrate that the vendor has a proactive approach to data security compliance?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides documented safeguards in handling confidential data.

B.

The vendor provides a copy of their externally performed risk assessment.

C.

The vendor has a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) in place before work begins.

D.

The vendor has a signed contract in place before work with data begins.

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Questions 45

A bank recently informed a customer that their account has been overdrawn after their latest transaction. This transaction was not authorized by the customer. Upon further investigation, it was determined by the security team that a hacker was able to manipulate the customer's pre-authenticated session and force a wire transfer of funds to a foreign bank account. Which type of attack MOST likely occurred?

Options:

A.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

B.

On-path attack

C.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D.

Session hijacking

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Questions 46

Which compensating control is the MOST effective to prevent fraud within an organization?

Options:

A.

Separation of privilege

B.

Pre-employment background checks

C.

Principle of least privilege

D.

Log monitoring

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Questions 47

An organization is running a cloud-based application to process the information obtained at point-of-sale devices. Which guideline should be applied to the application?

Options:

A.

Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA)

B.

Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

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Questions 48

We have observed the inventory system does not handle plastic parts well." What should be added to the problem statement to make it more useful?

Options:

A.

Measurements that help describe the problem

B.

Guidance to which problem-solving tools should be used

C.

Criteria for selecting the improvement team

D.

Description of who is responsible for the problem

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Questions 49

Check sheets can be used to:

Options:

A.

determine the frequency of a defect and the time period between occurrences.

B.

provide a quick method to identify if possible defects exist.

C.

allow improvement teams to see if action items are being completed on time.

D.

provide an indication of correlation between defects.

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Questions 50

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

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Questions 51

Which Virtual Private Network (VPN) protocol provides a built-in encryption?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

B.

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol

C.

Layer 2 Forwarding Protocol

D.

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

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Questions 52

Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Product mix

B.

Aggregate volume

C.

Engineering change effectivity date

D.

Customer order quantities

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Questions 53

A security consultant is working with an organization to help evaluate a proposal received from a new managed security service provider. There are questions about the confidentiality and effectiveness of the provider's system over a period of time. Which of the following System And Organization Controls (SOC) report types should the consultant request from the provider?

Options:

A.

SOC 2 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

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Questions 54

What is an important countermeasure to consider when hardening network devices and servers to reduce the effectiveness of unauthorized network scanning?

Options:

A.

Filter inbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

B.

Filter inbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

C.

Filter outbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

D.

Filter outbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

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Questions 55

Which of the following factors is used to determine safety stock?

Options:

A.

Number of customers

B.

Available capacity

C.

Forecast error distribution

D.

Time between customer orders

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Questions 56

Which protocol is the BEST option to provide authentication, confidentiality, and data integrity between two applications?

Options:

A.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

B.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

C.

Peer-To-Peer (P2P) communication

D.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

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Questions 57

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use to test whether servers are set up according to the organization's documented policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 58

A financial institution is implementing an Information Technology (IT) asset management system. Which of the following capabilities is the MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Logging the data leak protection status of the IT asset

B.

Tracking the market value of the IT asset

C.

Receiving or transferring an IT asset

D.

Recording the bandwidth and data usage of the IT asset

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Questions 59

Which of the following combines multiple software programming tools into one package?

Options:

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Software development kit

C.

Dynamic Link Libraries (DLL)

D.

Program language compilers

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Questions 60

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of black hat testing during an assessment?

Options:

A.

Assess systems without the knowledge of end-users.

B.

Focus on identifying vulnerabilities.

C.

Examine the damage or impact an adversary can cause.

D.

Determine the risk associated with unknown vulnerabilities.

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Questions 61

A part is sold as a service part, and It is also used as a component In another part. Which of the following statements about the planning for this part is true?

Options:

A.

Its low-level code is zero.

B.

The material requirements for the part will be understated.

C.

The service part demand can be included In the gross requirements.

D.

It shouldn’t have any safety stock.

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Questions 62

Which security concept applies if an architecture diagram illustrates a particular user/role combination with access to an asset or applicaton?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Authentication

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Questions 63

An audit of antivirus server reports shows a number of workstations do not have current signatures installed. The organization security standard requires all systems to have current antivirus signatures. What distinct part of the audit finding did the auditor fail to include?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Effect

D.

Cause

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Questions 64

Which of the below represent the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Supply chain failure

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

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Questions 65

What is the HIGHEST security concern on trans-border data?

Options:

A.

Organizations that are not in highly regulated industries do not have the resources to achieve compliance.

B.

Cyber transactions occur in an ever-changing legal and regulatory landscape without fixed borders.

C.

Information security practitioners are not Subject Matter Experts (SME) for all legal and compliance requirements.

D.

Organizations must follow all laws and regulations related to the use of the Internet.

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Questions 66

Which of the following represents the level of confidence that software is free from intentional an accidental vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Due care

B.

Vulnerability management

C.

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

D.

Software assurance

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Questions 67

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

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Questions 68

Which of the following mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart side channel attacks?

Options:

A.

Honeypots

B.

Adding listening devices

C.

Adding noise

D.

Acoustic cryptanalysis

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Questions 69

What is the MAIN privacy risk raised by federated identity solutions?

Options:

A.

The potential for tracking and profiling an individual's transactions

B.

The potential to break the chain of trust between identity brokers

C.

The potential for exposing an organization's sensitive business information

D.

The potential for unauthorized access to user attributes

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Questions 70

A champion is assigned to lead a threat modeling exercise. Which of the following will be the FIRST thing to consider?

Options:

A.

Using an automated tool to construct system models

B.

Outlining a detailed threat modeling procedure

C.

Scheduling weekly threat modeling sessions

D.

Ensuring the right stakeholder are involved

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Questions 71

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

Options:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

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Questions 72

If an organization wanted to protect is data against loss of confidentiality in transit, which type of encryption is BEST?

Options:

A.

Symmetric cryptography

B.

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with asymmetric keys

C.

Password encryption using hashing (with salt and pepper)

D.

Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hashing

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Questions 73

If all other factors remain the same, when finished goods inventory investment is increased, service levels typically will:

Options:

A.

remain the same.

B.

increase in direct (linear) proportion.

C.

increase at a decreasing rate.

D.

increase at an increasing rate.

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Questions 74

As the organization requires user friendly access to a new web-based application, a software developer decides to implement Single Sign-On (SSO). The developer uses the de-facto standard for web-based applications and the implementation includes the use of a JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) web token. With this information, which is the BEST way for the software developer to establish SSO capability?

Options:

A.

The developer Inputs the user's account, the user's password, and a token.

B.

The developer uses the user's credentials stored within the web-based application.

C.

The developer uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificates and Open ID Connect (OIDC).

D.

The developer uses Open ID Connect (OIDC) and Open Authorization (OAuth).

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Questions 75

Which of the following are steps involved in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Dissemination, review, revocation

B.

Dissemination, rotation, revocation

C.

Provisioning, review, revocation

D.

Provisioning, Dissemination, revocation

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Questions 76

Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) protocol relies on Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP). Which can be used maliciously to interrupt the flow of data. Which Information Technology (IT) component would be impacted by such a disruption?

Options:

A.

Firewall.

B.

Switch.

C.

Storage.

D.

Router.

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Questions 77

An organization is implementing Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) and needs a strategy to measure device trust for employee laptops. Which measurement strategy is BEST suited and why?

Options:

A.

Remote using a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) due to better protection of the keys

B.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because low-level access software can be accessed

C.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

D.

Remote using a scanning device because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

E.

Local using Mobile Device Management (MDM) because of device policy enforcement

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Questions 78

An organization’s system engineer arranged a meeting with the system owner and a few major stakeholders to finalize the feasibility analysis for a new application.

Which of the following topics will MOST likely be on the agenda?

Options:

A.

Results of the preliminary cost-benefit studies

B.

Design of the application system and database processes

C.

Communication of procedures and reporting requirements

D.

Identification of inter-application dependencies

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Questions 79

The project manager for a new application development is building a test framework. It has been agreed that the framework will Include penetration testing; however, the project manager is keen to identify any flaws prior to the code being ready for execution. Which of the following techniques BEST supports this requirement?

Options:

A.

System vulnerability scans

B.

Database injection tests

C.

System reliability tests

D.

Static source code analysis

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Questions 80

Business management should be engaged in the creation of Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery plans (DRP) because they need to

Options:

A.

Ensure that the technology chosen for implementation meets all of the requirements.

B.

Provide resources and support for the development and testing of the plan.

C.

Predetermine spending for development and implantation of the plan.

D.

Specify the solution and options around which the plans will be developed.

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Questions 81

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

Options:

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Questions 82

Which compensating control is the MOST effective to prevent fraud within an organization?

Options:

A.

Principle of least privilege

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Separation of privilege

D.

Pre-employment background checks

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Questions 83

Open Authorized (OAuth) has been chosen as technology to use across applications in the enterprise. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an OAuth token?

Options:

A.

Does not specify a time interval

B.

Can be used for authentication

C.

Can be used across multiple sites

D.

Specifies what information can be accessed

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Questions 84

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

Options:

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

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Questions 85

While conducting an information asset audit, it was determined that several devices were running unpatched Operating Systems (0S). Further review Indicated the OS was no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following BEST indicates the appropriate asset lifecycle stage of the devices?

Options:

A.

Maintain

B.

Modify

C.

Procure

D.

Dispose

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Questions 86

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

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Questions 87

Which of the following controls should a financial Institution have in place in order to prevent a trader from both entering and executing a trade?

Options:

A.

Cameras in the trading room

B.

Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)

C.

Separation of Duties (SoD)

D.

Least privilege

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Questions 88

What is the BEST protection method to ensure that an unauthorized entry attempt would fail when securing highly sensitive areas?

Options:

A.

Employee badge with a picture and video surveillance

B.

Keyed locks and Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV) at entrances

C.

Combination lock and a gate that prevents piggybacking

D.

Proximity badge requiring a Personal Identification Number (PIN) entry at entrances

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Questions 89

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

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Questions 90

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

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Questions 91

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an international organization with offices operating globally has been tasked with developing a new data encryption policy that can be applied to all areas of the business. What is the MOST important factor that must be considered?

Options:

A.

Organization's security policy and standards

B.

How data will be stored and accessed

C.

Regulatory and compliance requirements

D.

Where data will be stored and accessed

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Questions 92

Management should support investments in new process technologies that:

Options:

A.

require minimal changes in existing systems, procedures, and skills.

B.

have been recommended by technical experts and equipment suppliers.

C.

provide significant cost-reduction opportunities for the company's current products.

D.

provide long-term competitive advantage with acceptable financial risk.

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Questions 93

To gain entry into a building, individuals are required to use a palm scan. This is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative detective

B.

Physical preventive

C.

Physical detective

D.

Administrative preventive

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Questions 94

Which of the following attributes describes a company with a global strategy?

Options:

A.

Ituses the same basic competitive style worldwide and focuses efforts on building global brands.

B.

Itcustomizes the basic competitive style to fit markets but focuses efforts on building global brands.

C.

Itcoordinates major strategic decisions worldwide but gives country managers wide strategy-making latitude.

D.

Itoperates plants in many host countries and uses decentralized distribution.

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Questions 95

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

Options:

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

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Questions 96

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

Options:

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

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Questions 97

A recent email-based malware breakout caused a significant volume of traffic and password spam account lockouts for an organization. Which BEST identifies compromised devices?

Options:

A.

Security Information And Event Management (SIEM)

B.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

C.

Vulnerability scan

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 98

When performing threat modeling using Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE), which of the following is an example of a repudiation threat?

Options:

A.

Using someone else's account

B.

Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS)

C.

SQL Injection (SQLi)

D.

Modifying a file

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Questions 99

Given the following data, calculate the appropriate takt time:

CPIM-8.0 Question 99

Options:

A.

0.25 minutes

B.

1 minute

C.

2 minutes

D.

4 minutes

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Questions 100

Which of the following statements is true about the meantime between failures (MTBF) measure?

Options:

A.

It is used for non-repairable products.

B.

An increase in MTBF is proportional to anincrease inquality.

C.

It is a useful measure of reliability.

D.

It is the same as operating life or service life.

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Questions 101

Which of the following actions hinders the transition from a push system to a pull system?

Options:

A.

Using standardized containers

B.

Using work orders as a backup

C.

Introducing kanban cards as authorization for material movement

D.

Maintaining a constant number of kanban cards during minor changes in the level of production

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Questions 102

When conducting a vulnerability test using a scanner tool, which unintended consequence can occur?

Options:

A.

Opening of previously closed ports

B.

Adding administrator rights on servers

C.

Performing a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack

D.

Creating a Denial-Of-Service (DoS) condition

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Questions 103

A security officer has been tasked with performing security assessments on the organization’s in the current calendar year. While collecting data, the officer realizes that more than one business until will be engaged in the assessment. What activity MUST be included in the data collection phase?

Options:

A.

Conduct a detailed data analysis on the security impacts using historical data.

B.

Prioritize assessment activities and strategically asses each application

C.

Identify a sponsor from within the organization to prioritize the activities

D.

Perform a risk analysis and determine which applications must be assessed

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Questions 104

What is the following is the MAIN reason why hot-spot usually adopt open security mode in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

Ease of use

B.

Limitation of Infrastructure

C.

Adapter compatibility concerns

D.

Cost concerns

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the GREATEST threat for a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) deployment on the internet?

Options:

A.

Ability to use weak hashing algorithms for peer authentication

B.

Ability to perform unauthenticated peering across autonomous systems

C.

Failure to validate legitimacy of received route advertisements

D.

Failure to encrypt route announcement across autonomous systems

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Questions 106

To ensure the quality of its newly developed software, an organization is aiming to deploy an automated testing tool that validates the source code. What type of testing BEST supports this capability?

Options:

A.

Network vulnerability scanning

B.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

C.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

D.

Fuzz parsing

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Questions 107

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

Options:

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

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Questions 108

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 109

An employee returns a borrowed laptop used for lab testing. What is the BEST action the technician should perform upon receiving the laptop to ensure no sensitive information will be exposed?

Options:

A.

Delete all the files.

B.

Purge the hard drive.

C.

Encrypt the hard drive.

D.

Degauss the hard drive.

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Questions 110

During a threat modeling exercise using the Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE) framework, it was identified that a web server allocates a socket and forks each time it receives a request from a user without limiting the number of connections or requests.

Which of the following security objectives is MOST likely absent in the web server?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Authorization

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Questions 111

A cybersecurity analyst is responsible for identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities in the organization's software systems. Which action BEST demonstrates the understanding and application of threat modeling concepts and methodologies?

Options:

A.

Implementing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Conducting access control assessments for the data center

C.

Analyzing potential attack vectors for a new software application

D.

Developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for critical systems

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Questions 112

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

Options:

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

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Questions 113

In a Zero Trust (ZT) model, where should the enforcement component be placed and why?

Options:

A.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authorization decisions

B.

Between the data stores and the trust engine, because it improves security policies

C.

As close to the workload as possible, because it impacts authentication decisions

D.

Between the policy engine and the trust engine, because it enforces security policies

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Questions 114

A systems engineer has been tasked by management to provide a recommendation with a prioritized, focused set of actions to help the organization stop high-risk cyber attacks and ensure data security. What should the systems engineer recommend the organization use to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Center for Internet Security critical security controls

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

Inventory baseline controls

D.

Security content automation protocol controls

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Questions 115

An organization processes healthcare data, stores credit card data, and must provide audited financial statements, each of which is controlled by a separate compliance standard. To support compliance against multiple standards and the testing of the greatest number of controls with a limited budget, how would the internal audit team BEST audit the organization?

Options:

A.

Conduct an integrated audit against the most stringent security controls.

B.

Combine the systems into a single audit and implement security controls per applicable standard.

C.

Combine the systems into a single audit against all of the associated security controls.

D.

Audit each system individually and implement the applicable standard specific security controls.

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Questions 116

An organization’s external auditors have issued a management letter identifying significant deficiencies related to the effectiveness of the previous year’s global access certification. The organization wants to move from a department-based access control system to a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) system. In addition to quickly and securely provisioning users by granting membership into predefined and approved roles, which of these presents the BEST reason to do so?

Options:

A.

The organization can implement both mandatory and dynamic access controls, except where they would be in conflict.

B.

The organization can clone roles, saving time and granting broad access to persons within the same department.

C.

The organization can give a person holding multiple roles the appropriate levels of access to specific data for each role.

D.

The organization can implement both static and dynamic access controls, adjusting them to fit any individual’s access needs.

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Questions 117

Which of the common vulnerabilities below can be mitigated by using indexes rather than actual portions of file names?

Options:

A.

Open redirect

B.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

C.

Path traversal

D.

Classic buffer overflow

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Questions 118

Which of the following methods would be appropriate for forecasting the demand for a product family when there is a significant trend and seasonality in the demand history?

Options:

A.

Econometric models

B.

Computer simulation

C.

Time series decomposition

D.

Weighted moving average

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Questions 119

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization's databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

Options:

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

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Questions 120

An organization has hired a consultant to establish their Identity and Access Management (IAM) system. One of the consultant’s main priorities will be to understand the current state and establish visibility across the environment. How can the consultant start to establish an IAM governance process?

Options:

A.

Implement Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process for sensitive applications.

B.

Determine authoritative identity sources.

C.

Understand connectivity to target applications.

D.

Implement Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process for web-based applications.

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Questions 121

Which of the following statements characterizes a pull system In distribution management?

Options:

A.

Each warehouse makes its own replenishment decisions.

B.

It uses distribution requirements planning(DRP).

C.

It uses uniform performance measures.

D.

It uses fair-share allocation.

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Questions 122

In which of the following phases of the product life cycle is product price most effective in influencing demand?

Options:

A.

Introduction

B.

Growth

C.

Maturity

D.

Decline

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Questions 123

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

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Questions 124

What is the main negative effect of changing the due dates of open orders?

Options:

A.

The schedule information becomes inaccurate.

B.

The customer service level decreases.

C.

It leads to "nervousness" in the schedule.

D.

The schedule does not support demand.

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Questions 125

A security engineer is implementing a Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system.

What is the BEST action the engineer can take to ensure secure operations?

Options:

A.

Refer to the organization’s SCADA security standards and policies.

B.

Refer to the SCADA risk assessment and industry standards.

C.

Review the organizational Standard Operating Procedures (SOP).

D.

Conduct logging and monitoring of the system and apply need to know and least privileges.

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Questions 126

Given the bill of material (BOM) information below and independent requirements of 10 pieces (pcs) per week of Component A and 20 pieces (pcs) per week of Component B, what is the weekly gross requirement of component F?

CPIM-8.0 Question 126

Options:

A.

80

B.

120

C.

160

D.

200

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Questions 127

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

Options:

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

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Questions 128

What is the BEST item to consider when designing security for information systems?

Options:

A.

The comprehensive level of assurance required

B.

The jurisdiction of the information system

C.

The security requirements of the board

D.

The Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

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Questions 129

An independent risk assessment determined that a hospital's existing policies did not have a formal process in place to address system misuse, abuse, or fraudulent activity by internal users. Which of the following would BEST address this deficiency in the Corrective Action Plan?

Options:

A.

Create and deploy policies and procedures

B.

Develop and implement a sanction policy

C.

Implement a risk management program

D.

Perform a security control gap analysis

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Questions 130

A plant uses a level production strategy due to the high costs of hiring and letting go of skilled employees. The constrained resource is due to be upgraded in the fourth month of the planning horizon, and that will reduce capacity for that month by 17%.

Which of the following actions would be appropriate in this situation to maintain current levels of customer service and gross margin?

Options:

A.

Increase planned production for the next three periods.

B.

Defer the upgrade to a period beyond the planning time fence.

C.

Increase planned production from the fifth period on.

D.

Defer the upgrade to the period in which the highest stock level is planned.

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Questions 131

The primary consideration In maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supply systems typically is:

Options:

A.

order quantity.

B.

stockout costs.

C.

carrying costs.

D.

shelf life.

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Questions 132

Under which of the following conditions is excess capacity most likely a good substitute for safety stock?

Options:

A.

The cost of excess capacity is less than the cost of an additional unit of safety stock in the same period.

B.

The cost to maintain one unit in inventory for a year is less than the direct labor cost.

C.

The service level with safety stock is more than the service level with excess capacity.

D.

Lead time for the product is longer than customers are willing to wait.

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Questions 133

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Questions 134

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

Options:

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

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Questions 135

What is the MOST appropriate action to take when media classification needs to be downgraded to a less sensitive classification?

Options:

A.

Modify access permissions on media at appropriate classification level.

B.

Modify access logging on media at appropriate classification level.

C.

Sanitize media using appropriate data destruction procedure.

D.

Mark the media with less sensitive classification label.

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Questions 136

Which of the following actions best supports a company's strategic focus on delivery speed to improve competitive advantage?

Options:

A.

Maintaining high-capacity utilization

B.

Developing flexible operations

C.

Cross-training workers

D.

Implementing rapid process improvements

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Questions 137

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live.

What is the organization's BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

B.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor’s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

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Questions 138

One of the most useful tools for analyzing the sustainable footprint is:

Options:

A.

process mapping.

B.

lean six sigma.

C.

SWOT analysis.

D.

ISO 9000.

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Questions 139

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user's hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

Options:

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

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Questions 140

A planner has chosen to increase the order point for a raw material. Which of the following costs is most likely to increase?

Options:

A.

Carrying

B.

Ordering

C.

Landed

D.

Product

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Questions 141

A company's primary performance objective Is flexibility. Which of the following measurements is most important?

Options:

A.

Labor productivity

B.

Schedule adherence

C.

Machine changeover time

D.

Cycle time

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Questions 142

Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement to mitigate the risk of data breach in the event of a lost or stolen mobile device?

Options:

A.

Mobile application management

B.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy

C.

Network Access Control (NAC)

D.

Mobile Device Management (MDM)

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Questions 143

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for a business unit with a low relative market share in a high-growth market?

Options:

A.

Using excess cash generated to fund other business units

B.

Investing in the acquisition of competitors

C.

Investing in projects to maintain market share

D.

Designing product improvements to protect market share

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Questions 144

According to quality function deployment (QFD), customer needs are gathered through:

Options:

A.

employee suggestions.

B.

technical specifications.

C.

surveys.

D.

historical data.

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Questions 145

Which of the following describes the 3 MAIN roles of the identity-delegation model?

Options:

A.

Application server, web server, and delegate

B.

Application server, proxy server, and delegate

C.

Delegator, delegate, and service provider

D.

Delegator, application server, and service provider

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Questions 146

A large organization wants to implement a vulnerability management system in its internal network. A security professional has been hired to set up a vulnerability scanner on premises and to execute the scans periodically. Which of the following should be the FIRST action performed by the security professional?

Options:

A.

Configure internal firewalls to accept and pass all scanner traffic and responses

B.

Execute a vulnerability scan to determine the current organization security posture

C.

Select two different vulnerability scanners to get comprehensive reporting

D.

Obtain support from the computing systems' stakeholders

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Questions 147

What MUST be completed before developing physical security controls?

Options:

A.

Develop a comprehensive security policy

B.

Provide the annual security awareness training

C.

Contract for licensed and bonded security force

D.

Perform a physical security audit

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Questions 148

A low-cost provider strategy works best when which of the following conditions are met?

Options:

A.

Price competition among rivals is similar.

B.

Buyers are more price sensitive.

C.

There are many ways to achieve product differentiation.

D.

There are few industry newcomers.

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Questions 149

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Completeness

B.

Vulnerabilities

C.

Security

D.

Logic

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Questions 150

What is the MOST likely cause for a penetration tester having difficulties finding the stack to inject code?

Options:

A.

Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)

B.

Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)

C.

Structured exception handling overwrite protection

D.

Export address table filtering

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Questions 151

Which of the following is MOST accurate when comparing patch management and vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Patch management manages the security lifecycle from discovery to remediation.

B.

Patch management identifies, acquires, tests, and installs code changes on a specific computing device.

C.

Vulnerability management is a process executed in specialized software to address security issues or add new features.

D.

Vulnerability management plugs security holes and remediates risk by upgrading software to the most recent versions.

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Questions 152

An organization implemented a threat modeling program focusing on key assets. However, after a short time it became clear that the organization was having difficulty executing the threat modeling program.

Which approach will MOST likely have been easier to execute?

Options:

A.

System-centric approach

B.

Attacker-centric approach

C.

Asset-centric approach

D.

Developer-centric approach

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Questions 153

Which of the following does a federated Identity Provider (IDP) need in order to grant access to identity information?

Options:

A.

The end system and the middleware system must trust each other.

B.

The end system authenticates and verifies the user.

C.

The end system application needs to verify the user’s identity.

D.

The application or system needs to trust the user.

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Questions 154

In the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following modes allows only one host to send information to its peer?

Options:

A.

Half-duplex

B.

Simplex

C.

Unicast

D.

Full-duplex

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Questions 155

An organization's security policy requires sensitive information to be protected when being transmitted to external sources via would be the BEST security solution to choose?

Options:

A.

Use spam filters and anti-virus software to send emails externally.

B.

Configure digital signatures to send emails externally.

C.

Configure the system to utilize to send encrypted emails externally.

D.

Use e-mail security gateway to send emails externally.

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Questions 156

An organization uses an external Identity Provider (IdP) to secure internal, external, or third-party applications. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Unavailability of access logs

B.

Integrity of authentication mechanism

C.

Compromise of service

D.

Deletion of federated tokens

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Questions 157

In the design and development of a manufacturing process, process engineers would most likely be responsible for decisions relating to:

Options:

A.

lead times.

B.

production capacity.

C.

product reliability.

D.

routing sequences.

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Questions 158

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

Options:

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

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Questions 159

When implementing a data classification program, Which is MOST important for measuring businesss impact?

Options:

A.

Data classification program being rolled out in accordance with policies and procedures

B.

Measuring the size of the data set to understand scoping for compliance requirements

C.

The adverse effect of data leakage

D.

The early appointment of data custodians

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Questions 160

What is the MAIN reason security is considered as part of the system design phase instead of deferring to later phases?

Options:

A.

To prevent the users from performing unauthorized actions during the testing or operational phases

B.

To ensure complexity introduced by security design is addressed in the beginning stages

C.

To reduce the overall cost of incorporating security in a system

D.

To prevent the system from being tampered with in the future

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Questions 161

In preparing for a facility location decision, proximity to suppliers would be classified as which kind of criteria?

Options:

A.

Service level requirements

B.

Future flexibility factors

C.

Access to transportation

D.

Cost factors

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Questions 162

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 163

When developing information security policies, What is the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business requirements

B.

Compliance with legal requirements

C.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

D.

Compliance with international standards

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Questions 164

What document MOST likely states an organization’s values?

Options:

A.

Union labor agreement

B.

Information protection policy

C.

Code of conduct

D.

Management standards

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Questions 165

An organization has determined that it needs to retain customer records for at least thirty years to discover generational trends in customer behavior. However, relevant local regulation requires that all Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is deleted after expiration of the customer's engagement with the organization, which is usually no longer than one year. How should the data be handled at the expiration of customer engagement at one year?

Options:

A.

Because the data contains PII, it should be backed up in an encrypted form, with the encryption key securely kept in a Hardware Security Module (HSM), and all access logged and monitored.

B.

The data should be deleted from the customer website, and archived to a write-once, read-many drive to securely meet the business requirement for analytics.

C.

PII portion of the data should be tokenized or deleted, and the rest of the data stored securely to meet the business requirement for analytics.

D.

Since legal and regulatory compliance takes priority over business requirements, the data should be deleted.

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Exam Code: CPIM-8.0
Exam Name: Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)
Last Update: Sep 14, 2025
Questions: 552

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