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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 5

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Questions 6

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

Options:

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Questions 7

It was discovered that a service provider's administrator was accessing sensitive information without the approval of the customer in an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model. Which of the following would BEST protect against a future recurrence?

Options:

A.

Data encryption

B.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Contractual requirements

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

Options:

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 9

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

D.

Granting access based on least privilege

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Questions 10

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

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Questions 12

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

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Questions 13

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Questions 14

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

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Questions 15

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of anti-malware software?

Options:

A.

Number of staff hours lost due to malware attacks

B.

Number of downtime hours in business critical servers

C.

Number of patches made to anti-malware software

D.

Number of successful attacks by malicious software

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Questions 16

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

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Questions 17

Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Periodic asset review by management

B.

Asset registration form

C.

Automated asset management software

D.

IT resource budgeting process

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Questions 18

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

Options:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Questions 19

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 20

Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories

B.

Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications

C.

Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours

D.

Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks

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Questions 21

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

Options:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

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Questions 22

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

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Questions 23

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

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Questions 24

An organization has updated its acceptable use policy to mitigate the risk of employees disclosing confidential information. Which of the following is the BEST way to reinforce the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Communicate sanctions for policy violations to all staff.

B.

Obtain signed acceptance of the new policy from employees.

C.

Train all staff on relevant information security best practices.

D.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) within the corporate network.

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Questions 25

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

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Questions 26

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

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Questions 27

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

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Questions 28

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Questions 29

Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

An incident resulting in data loss

B.

Changes in executive management

C.

Updates to the information security policy

D.

Introduction of a new product line

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Questions 30

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

Options:

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

D.

Users having unauthorized access to data

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Questions 31

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

Options:

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

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Questions 32

When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?

Options:

A.

Results of benchmarking studies

B.

Results of risk assessments

C.

Number of emergency change requests

D.

Maturity model

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Questions 33

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation regarding disaster recovery management (DRM) for Software as a Service (SaaS) providers?

Options:

A.

Conduct inoremental backups of data in the SaaS environment to a local data center.

B.

Implement segregation of duties between multiple SaaS solution providers.

C.

Codify availability requirements in the SaaS provider's contract.

D.

Conduct performance benchmarking against other SaaS service providers.

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Questions 34

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Questions 35

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

Options:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

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Questions 36

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

Options:

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

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Questions 37

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

Options:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Questions 39

A global organization is considering the transfer of its customer information systems to an overseas cloud service provider in the event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

Regulatory restrictions for cross-border data transfer

B.

Service level objectives in the vendor contract

C.

Organizational culture differences between each country

D.

Management practices within each company

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Questions 40

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

Options:

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

Options:

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Questions 42

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Questions 43

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Questions 44

An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner's recommendation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk analysis.

B.

Initiate a remote data wipe.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Disable the user account.

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Questions 45

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

Options:

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Questions 46

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response

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Questions 47

The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:

Options:

A.

availability of fault tolerant software.

B.

strategic plan for business growth.

C.

vulnerability scan results of critical systems.

D.

redundancy of technical infrastructure.

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Questions 48

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

Options:

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

Options:

A.

Least privilege access

B.

Inability to edit

C.

Ability to overwrite

D.

Encryption

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Questions 50

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 51

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

Options:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Questions 52

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

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Questions 53

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

Options:

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

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Questions 54

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

Options:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Questions 55

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

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Questions 56

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

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Questions 57

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Questions 58

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

Options:

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

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Questions 59

An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

impact on network performance

C.

insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

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Questions 60

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Questions 61

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

Options:

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization's acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

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Questions 62

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY consideration when approving risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

Ability of the action plans to address multiple risk scenarios

B.

Ease of implementing the risk treatment solution

C.

Changes in residual risk after implementing the plans

D.

Prioritization for implementing the action plans

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Questions 63

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

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Questions 64

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Questions 65

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

Options:

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

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Questions 66

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Questions 67

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

Options:

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

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Questions 68

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

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Questions 69

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

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Questions 70

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

Options:

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 71

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

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Questions 72

Which of the following BEST supports the management of identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Collecting risk event data

B.

Maintaining a risk register

C.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Defining risk parameters

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Questions 73

Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?

Options:

A.

Average time to grant access privileges

B.

Number of changes in access granted to users

C.

Average number of access privilege exceptions

D.

Number and type of locked obsolete accounts

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Questions 74

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

Options:

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Questions 75

Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization's:

Options:

A.

risk classification methods

B.

risk-based capital allocation

C.

risk portfolio

D.

risk culture

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Questions 76

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

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Questions 77

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

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Questions 78

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Identify critical data.

C.

Establish a data inventory.

D.

Conduct a risk analysis.

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Questions 79

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the country where it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

Options:

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Historical trends of the organizational risk profile

B.

Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects

C.

Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures

D.

Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth

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Questions 81

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

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Questions 82

When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Historical losses due to past risk events

B.

Cost to reduce the impact and likelihood

C.

Likelihood and impact of the risk scenario

D.

Actor and threat type of the risk scenario

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Questions 83

Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend the business change the application.

B.

Recommend a risk treatment plan.

C.

Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Questions 84

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

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Questions 85

Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

Options:

A.

Automated access revocation

B.

Daily transaction reconciliation

C.

Rule-based data analytics

D.

Role-based user access model

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Questions 86

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

Options:

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Questions 87

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

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Questions 88

Key control indicators (KCls) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:

Options:

A.

ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.

B.

enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.

C.

monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.

D.

providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.

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Questions 89

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Questions 90

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Questions 91

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

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Questions 92

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Organization risk profile

B.

Information classification policy

C.

Encryption policy

D.

Digital rights management policy

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Questions 93

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

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Questions 94

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

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Questions 95

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

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Questions 96

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

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Questions 97

When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness.

B.

The budget for control implementation.

C.

Assessment of control risk.

D.

Internal control audits.

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Questions 98

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.

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Questions 99

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on the organization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

Options:

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

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Questions 100

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

Options:

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Questions 101

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Questions 102

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

Options:

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

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Questions 103

A risk practitioner has been asked to propose a risk acceptance framework for an organization. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the risk practitioner to address in the framework?

Options:

A.

Consistent forms to document risk acceptance rationales

B.

Acceptable scenarios to override risk appetite or tolerance thresholds

C.

Individuals or roles authorized to approve risk acceptance

D.

Communication protocols when a risk is accepted

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Questions 104

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

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Questions 105

A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk impact

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 106

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Questions 107

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Questions 108

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?

Options:

A.

Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles

B.

Establishing minimum cloud security requirements

C.

Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters

D.

Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security

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Questions 109

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool

C.

Lack of senior management involvement

D.

Use of multiple risk registers

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Questions 110

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Questions 111

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Risk response options

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Process ownership

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Questions 112

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

Options:

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

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Questions 113

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

Options:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Questions 114

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 115

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Vulnerability event

C.

Technical event

D.

Loss event

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Questions 116

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Questions 117

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

Options:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Questions 118

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

Options:

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

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Questions 119

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

Options:

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

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Questions 120

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Questions 121

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Questions 122

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

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Questions 123

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?

Options:

A.

The inability to monitor via network management solutions

B.

The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process

C.

The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices

D.

The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware

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Questions 124

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 125

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Questions 126

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

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Questions 127

A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Preventative

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Questions 128

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Attribute analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 129

What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

Options:

A.

Flexibility and adaptability

B.

Measurability and consistency

C.

Robustness and resilience

D.

Optimal cost and benefit

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Questions 130

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Questions 131

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?

Options:

A.

Unknown vulnerabilities

B.

Legacy technology systems

C.

Network isolation

D.

Overlapping threats

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Questions 132

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Questions 133

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to determine risk exposure following control implementations?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan and risk management integration

B.

Risk escalation and process for communication

C.

Risk limits, thresholds, and indicators

D.

Policies, standards, and procedures

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Questions 134

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 135

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Questions 136

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action when an organization plans to adopt a cloud computing strategy?

Options:

A.

Request a budget for implementation

B.

Conduct a threat analysis.

C.

Create a cloud computing policy.

D.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Questions 137

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

Options:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

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Questions 138

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

Options:

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Users having unauthorized access to data

C.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

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Questions 139

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

Options:

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Questions 140

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

Options:

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

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Questions 141

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

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Questions 142

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 143

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

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Questions 144

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

Options:

A.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

B.

A management-approved risk dashboard

C.

A current control framework

D.

A regularly updated risk register

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Questions 145

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

Options:

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary's legal team.

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Questions 146

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Questions 147

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Questions 148

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Questions 149

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)

C.

Evaluating the residual risk level

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 150

A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?

Options:

A.

Assessing risk with no controls in place

B.

Showing projected residual risk

C.

Providing peer benchmarking results

D.

Assessing risk with current controls in place

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Questions 151

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Questions 152

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

Options:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

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Questions 153

When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios

B.

confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance

C.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management

D.

review alignment with the organization's investment plan

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Questions 154

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?

Options:

A.

Role-specific technical training

B.

Change management audit

C.

Change control process

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 155

Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk taxonomy

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk ranking

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Questions 156

Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.

B.

Remediation cost is below the asset business value

C.

The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual

D.

Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 157

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 158

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

Options:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

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Questions 159

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

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Questions 160

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Questions 161

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

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Questions 162

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

Options:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

Options:

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

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Questions 164

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

Options:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Questions 165

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

Options:

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

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Questions 166

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Questions 167

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

Options:

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

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Questions 168

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

Options:

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

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Questions 169

Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?

Options:

A.

Lack of technical expertise

B.

Combining incompatible duties

C.

Unauthorized data usage

D.

Denial of service attacks

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Questions 170

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

Options:

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

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Questions 171

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Questions 172

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

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Questions 173

The BEST indication that risk management is effective is when risk has been reduced to meet:

Options:

A.

risk levels.

B.

risk budgets.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk capacity.

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Questions 174

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

Options:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

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Questions 175

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

Options:

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

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Questions 176

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

Options:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

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Questions 177

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

Options:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Questions 178

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using an entry in the risk register to track the aggregate risk associated with server failure?

Options:

A.

It provides a cost-benefit analysis on control options available for implementation.

B.

It provides a view on where controls should be applied to maximize the uptime of servers.

C.

It provides historical information about the impact of individual servers malfunctioning.

D.

It provides a comprehensive view of the impact should the servers simultaneously fail.

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Questions 179

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Questions 180

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 181

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

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Questions 182

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?

Options:

A.

To measure business exposure to risk

B.

To identify control vulnerabilities

C.

To monitor the achievement of set objectives

D.

To raise awareness of operational issues

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Questions 183

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

Options:

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

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Questions 184

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Questions 185

Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

Options:

A.

Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.

B.

Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.

C.

Escalate to the risk committee.

D.

Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.

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Questions 186

Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Loss expectancy information

B.

Control performance predictions

C.

IT service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Remediation activity progress

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Questions 187

An organization's risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 188

Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?

Options:

A.

Review the business impact analysis.

B.

Create a business continuity plan.

C.

Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.

D.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

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Questions 189

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Questions 190

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Questions 191

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 192

An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?

Options:

A.

Lead auditor

B.

Project manager

C.

Chief audit executive (CAE)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 193

After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

Options:

A.

Escalate the issue to the service provider.

B.

Re-certify the application access controls.

C.

Remove the developer's access.

D.

Review the results of pre-migration testing.

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Questions 194

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

Options:

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

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Questions 195

What is the GREATEST concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register?

Options:

A.

Aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance.

B.

Duplicate resources may be used to manage risk registers.

C.

Standardization of risk management practices may be difficult to enforce.

D.

Risk analysis may be inconsistent due to non-uniform impact and likelihood scales.

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Questions 196

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

Options:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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Questions 197

The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement the response

B.

importance of IT risk within the enterprise

C.

effectiveness of risk response options

D.

alignment of response to industry standards

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Questions 198

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

Options:

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

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Questions 199

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

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Questions 200

Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?

Options:

A.

Determining which departments contribute most to risk

B.

Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners

C.

Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes

D.

Determining resource dependency of assets

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Questions 201

Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Technical control validation

D.

Control testing results

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Questions 202

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization's risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 203

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?

Options:

A.

Risk policy review

B.

Business impact analysis (B1A)

C.

Control catalog

D.

Risk register

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Questions 204

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

Options:

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Questions 205

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy

B.

Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices

C.

Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls

D.

Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program

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Questions 206

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 207

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Questions 208

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Questions 209

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Questions 210

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

Options:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Questions 211

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

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Questions 212

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

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Questions 213

Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Industry standards

D.

Heat map

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Questions 214

A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.

B.

negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.

C.

reassess the risk to confirm the impact.

D.

obtain approval from senior management.

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Questions 215

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

Options:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

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Questions 216

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders.

B.

Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold.

D.

Risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions.

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Questions 217

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Questions 218

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 219

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

Options:

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

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Questions 220

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

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Questions 221

The effectiveness of a control has decreased. What is the MOST likely effect on the associated risk?

Options:

A.

The risk impact changes.

B.

The risk classification changes.

C.

The inherent risk changes.

D.

The residual risk changes.

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Questions 222

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

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Questions 223

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Questions 224

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Questions 225

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

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Questions 226

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

Options:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

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Questions 227

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

Options:

A.

Improving control process efficiency

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Complying with functional requirements

D.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

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Questions 228

A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.

B.

Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.

C.

Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.

D.

Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.

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Questions 229

Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?

Options:

A.

Business management approval of change requests

B.

Separation of development and production environments

C.

Requirement of an implementation rollback plan

D.

IT management review of implemented changes

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Questions 230

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

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Questions 231

Which of the following requirements is MOST important to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure?

Options:

A.

A third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness must be provided at least annually.

B.

Incidents related to data toss must be reported to the organization immediately after they occur.

C.

Risk assessment results must be provided to the organization at least annually.

D.

A cyber insurance policy must be purchased to cover data loss events.

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Questions 232

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a data center?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Onsite replacement availability

C.

Maintenance procedures

D.

Installation manuals

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Questions 233

Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The data is measurable.

B.

The data is calculated continuously.

C.

The data is relevant.

D.

The data is automatically produced.

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Questions 234

Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Changes to the risk register

B.

Changes in risk appetite or tolerance

C.

Modification to risk categories

D.

Knowledge of new and emerging threats

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Questions 235

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The scenarios are based on industry best practice.

B.

The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.

C.

The scenarios are relevant to the organization.

D.

The scenarios include technical consequences.

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Questions 236

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

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Questions 237

Reviewing which of the following provides the BEST indication of an organizations risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk sharing strategy

B.

Risk transfer agreements

C.

Risk policies

D.

Risk assessments

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Questions 238

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?

Options:

A.

Independent audit report

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

MOST important to update when an

D.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 239

IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:

Options:

A.

the cost associated with each control.

B.

historical risk assessments.

C.

key risk indicators (KRls).

D.

information from the risk register.

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Questions 240

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk practitioner to embed risk management within the organization?

Options:

A.

Provide risk management feedback to key stakeholders.

B.

Collect and analyze risk data for report generation.

C.

Monitor and prioritize risk data according to the heat map.

D.

Engage key stakeholders in risk management practices.

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Questions 241

A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.

B.

Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.

C.

Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.

D.

Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.

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Questions 242

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

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Questions 243

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

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Questions 244

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

Options:

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Questions 245

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

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Questions 246

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

Options:

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Questions 247

Which of the following risk register elements is MOST likely to be updated if the attack surface or exposure of an asset is reduced?

Options:

A.

Likelihood rating

B.

Control effectiveness

C.

Assessment approach

D.

Impact rating

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Questions 248

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Questions 249

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

Options:

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

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Questions 250

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

Options:

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Questions 251

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Questions 252

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

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Questions 253

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

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Questions 254

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

Options:

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Questions 255

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

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Questions 256

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

Options:

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

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Questions 257

During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval

B.

Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.

C.

Identify an owner for the new control.

D.

Modify the action plan in the risk register.

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Questions 258

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

Options:

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

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Questions 259

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

Options:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

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Questions 260

An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:

Options:

A.

increased inherent risk.

B.

higher risk management cost

C.

decreased residual risk.

D.

lower risk management cost.

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Questions 261

An organization has outsourced a critical process involving highly regulated data to a third party with servers located in a foreign country. Who is accountable for the confidentiality of this data?

Options:

A.

Third-party data custodian

B.

Data custodian

C.

Regional office executive

D.

Data owner

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Questions 262

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Questions 263

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

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Questions 264

An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

Options:

A.

senior management has oversight of the process.

B.

process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.

C.

segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.

D.

risk owners have decision-making authority.

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Questions 265

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

Options:

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 266

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

Options:

A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

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Questions 267

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

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Questions 268

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 269

Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?

Options:

A.

Risk responsibilities are addressed.

B.

Risk-related information is communicated.

C.

Risk-oriented tasks are defined.

D.

Business process risk is analyzed.

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Questions 270

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Questions 271

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

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Questions 272

An organization has received notification that it is a potential victim of a cybercrime that may have compromised sensitive customer data. What should be The FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan.

B.

Determine the business impact.

C.

Conduct a forensic investigation.

D.

Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 273

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

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Questions 274

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Questions 275

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Update the risk register.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Prepare a report for senior management.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Questions 276

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Questions 277

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

Options:

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Questions 278

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

Options:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

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Questions 279

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

Options:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies.

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Questions 280

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?

Options:

A.

Identify risk response options.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Document the penalties for noncompliance.

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Questions 281

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Questions 282

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Questions 283

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

Options:

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

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Questions 284

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Questions 285

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Questions 286

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Questions 287

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

Options:

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Questions 288

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

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Questions 289

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Questions 290

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Questions 291

Real-time monitoring of security cameras implemented within a retail store is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

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Questions 292

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?

Options:

A.

Enforce password changes.

B.

Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).

C.

Enforce role-based authentication.

D.

Enforce password encryption.

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Questions 293

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

Options:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

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Questions 294

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Questions 295

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Questions 296

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

Options:

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

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Questions 297

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Questions 298

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

Options:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Questions 299

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Questions 300

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

Options:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Questions 301

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Questions 302

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Questions 303

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

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Questions 304

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

Options:

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Questions 305

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of promoting a risk-aware culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Better understanding of the risk appetite

B.

Improving audit results

C.

Enabling risk-based decision making

D.

Increasing process control efficiencies

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Questions 306

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Questions 307

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Questions 308

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Questions 309

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

Options:

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

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Questions 310

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Questions 311

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Questions 312

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Questions 313

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Questions 314

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Questions 315

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 316

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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Questions 317

The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.

B.

measure efficiency of the control process.

C.

confirm control alignment with business objectives.

D.

comply with the organization's policy.

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Questions 318

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 319

An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop a compensating control.

B.

Allocate remediation resources.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Identify risk responses

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Questions 320

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 321

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 322

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

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Questions 323

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

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Questions 324

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

Options:

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Questions 325

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Questions 326

During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Development

C.

Implementation

D.

Initiation

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Questions 327

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

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Questions 328

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Questions 329

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Questions 330

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Questions 331

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Questions 332

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

Options:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Questions 333

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'

Options:

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

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Questions 334

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Questions 335

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Questions 336

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Questions 337

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

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Questions 338

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

Options:

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Questions 339

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Questions 340

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Questions 341

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Questions 342

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Questions 343

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Questions 344

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Questions 345

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Questions 346

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Questions 347

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Questions 348

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

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Questions 349

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Questions 350

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

Options:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Questions 351

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Questions 352

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Questions 353

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 354

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Questions 355

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

Options:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

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Questions 356

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Questions 357

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Questions 358

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 359

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Questions 360

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Questions 361

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Questions 362

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Questions 363

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

Options:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Questions 364

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 365

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Questions 366

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

Options:

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 367

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 368

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

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Questions 369

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

Options:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

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Questions 370

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 371

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

Options:

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Questions 372

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

Options:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Questions 373

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

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Questions 374

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

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Questions 375

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activities

The composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Questions 376

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

Options:

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Questions 377

A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

Options:

A.

risk score

B.

risk impact

C.

risk response

D.

risk likelihood.

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Questions 378

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 379

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

Options:

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

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Questions 380

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Questions 381

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

Options:

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

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Questions 382

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

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Questions 383

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

Options:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

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Questions 384

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

Options:

A.

Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B.

Inaccurate reporting of results

C.

Increased number of vulnerabilities

D.

Network performance degradation

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Questions 385

A recent big data project has resulted in the creation of an application used to support important investment decisions. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data quality

B.

Maintenance costs

C.

Data redundancy

D.

System integration

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Questions 386

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

Options:

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Questions 387

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

Options:

A.

An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

B.

Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

C.

Clear accountability for risk management processes

D.

Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

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Questions 388

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Questions 389

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Questions 390

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

Options:

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 391

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

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Questions 392

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Questions 393

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?

Options:

A.

Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).

B.

Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.

C.

Require independent control assessments.

D.

Obtain vendor references from existing customers.

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Questions 394

An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Questions 395

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Questions 396

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

Options:

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

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Questions 397

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Questions 398

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The risk owner

C.

The control owner

D.

The audit manager

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Questions 399

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

Options:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Questions 400

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

Options:

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

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Questions 401

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

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Questions 402

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Questions 403

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Questions 404

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Questions 405

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

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Questions 406

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

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Questions 407

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

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Questions 408

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Questions 409

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

Options:

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Questions 410

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Questions 411

Which of the following stakeholders are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Vendors

C.

Regulators

D.

Legal team

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Questions 412

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

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Questions 413

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

Options:

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

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Questions 414

Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk trends to stakeholders.

B.

assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.

C.

highlight noncompliance with the risk policy

D.

identify threats to emerging technologies.

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Questions 415

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Questions 416

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Questions 417

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

Options:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Questions 418

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

Options:

A.

Reduce internal threats

B.

Reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

C.

Eliminate risk associated with personnel

D.

Ensure new hires have the required skills

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Questions 419

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

Options:

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 420

Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Software version

B.

Assigned software manager

C.

Software support contract expiration

D.

Software licensing information

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Questions 421

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

Options:

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Questions 422

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Questions 423

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 424

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

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Questions 425

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Questions 426

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

Options:

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

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Questions 427

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

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Questions 428

Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Clear understanding of the risk

B.

Comparable industry risk trends

C.

Appropriate resources

D.

Detailed standards and procedures

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Questions 429

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

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Questions 430

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

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Questions 431

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

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Questions 432

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B.

Exclude applicable controls from the assessment.

C.

Review the supplier's contractual obligations.

D.

Request risk acceptance from the business process owner.

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Questions 433

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

Options:

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Questions 434

An internal audit report reveals that a legacy system is no longer supported Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action before recommending a risk response'

Options:

A.

Review historical application down me and frequency

B.

Assess the potential impact and cost of mitigation

C.

identify other legacy systems within the organization

D.

Explore the feasibility of replacing the legacy system

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Questions 435

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within the organization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

Options:

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Questions 436

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

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Questions 437

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Questions 438

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

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Questions 439

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Questions 440

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

Options:

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Questions 441

An organization wants to grant remote access to a system containing sensitive data to an overseas third party. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to management?

Options:

A.

Transborder data transfer restrictions

B.

Differences in regional standards

C.

Lack of monitoring over vendor activities

D.

Lack of after-hours incident management support

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Questions 442

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Questions 443

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

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Questions 444

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Questions 445

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Questions 446

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Questions 447

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

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Questions 448

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

Options:

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

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Questions 449

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Questions 450

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

Options:

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

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Questions 451

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

Options:

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Questions 452

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

Options:

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

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Questions 453

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

Options:

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 454

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

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Questions 455

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Questions 456

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

Options:

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 457

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

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Questions 458

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 459

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the ongoing risk associated with operating system (OS) vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Temporarily mitigate the OS vulnerabilities

B.

Document and implement a patching process

C.

Evaluate permanent fixes such as patches and upgrades

D.

Identify the vulnerabilities and applicable OS patches

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Questions 460

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

Options:

A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

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Questions 461

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

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Questions 462

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

Options:

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

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Questions 463

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Questions 464

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Questions 465

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

Options:

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

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Questions 466

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 467

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Questions 468

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

Options:

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

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Questions 469

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

Options:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Questions 470

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

Options:

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

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Questions 471

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

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Questions 472

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

Options:

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Questions 473

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk governance charter

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Cross-business representation

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Questions 474

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

Options:

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Jan 30, 2025
Questions: 1583

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