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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

Options:

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

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Questions 5

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

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Questions 6

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Questions 7

The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.

B.

measure efficiency of the control process.

C.

confirm control alignment with business objectives.

D.

comply with the organization's policy.

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Questions 8

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying new risk exposures due to changes in the business environment?

Options:

A.

Standard operating procedures

B.

SWOT analysis

C.

Industry benchmarking

D.

Control gap analysis

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Questions 9

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 10

When an organization is having new software implemented under contract, which of the following is key to controlling escalating costs?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Change management

C.

Problem management

D.

Quality management

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Questions 11

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

Options:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Questions 12

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

Options:

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

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Questions 13

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

Options:

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Questions 14

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Questions 15

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Questions 16

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Questions 17

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the IT infrastructure

B.

Value of information assets

C.

Management culture

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 18

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

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Questions 19

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis:

Options:

A.

helps in calculating the expected cost of controls

B.

uses qualitative risk rankings such as low. medium and high.

C.

can be used m a cost-benefit analysts

D.

can be used to determine the indirect business impact.

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

Options:

A.

Network time protocol synchronization

B.

Identification of attack sources

C.

Early detection of breaches

D.

A documented communications plan

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Questions 21

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Questions 22

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Questions 23

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

Options:

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

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Questions 24

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

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Questions 25

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Questions 27

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Questions 28

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Questions 29

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Questions 30

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

Options:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

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Questions 31

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Questions 32

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

Options:

A.

Perform a penetration test.

B.

Review security logs.

C.

Conduct a threat analysis.

D.

Perform a root cause analysis.

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Questions 34

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

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Questions 35

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Questions 36

An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.

B.

System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.

C.

The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.

D.

The cloud provider is not independently certified.

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Questions 37

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

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Questions 38

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

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Questions 40

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

Options:

A.

procedures to monitor the operation of controls.

B.

a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.

C.

real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.

D.

monitoring activities for all critical assets.

E.

Perform a controls assessment.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to validate organizational awareness of cybersecurity risk?

Options:

A.

Conducting security awareness training

B.

Updating the information security policy

C.

Implementing mock phishing exercises

D.

Requiring two-factor authentication

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Questions 42

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

Options:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

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Questions 43

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Questions 44

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

Options:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Questions 45

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

Options:

A.

Business case documentation

B.

Organizational risk appetite statement

C.

Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D.

Organizational hierarchy

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Questions 46

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Questions 47

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

Options:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Questions 48

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

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Questions 49

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

Options:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Questions 50

Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.

B.

An independent ethics investigation team has been established.

C.

Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.

D.

The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.

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Questions 51

The PRIMARY purpose of using a framework for risk analysis is to:

Options:

A.

improve accountability

B.

improve consistency

C.

help define risk tolerance

D.

help develop risk scenarios.

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Questions 52

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Questions 53

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Questions 54

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Questions 55

Winch of the following can be concluded by analyzing the latest vulnerability report for the it infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of a threat

B.

Impact of technology risk

C.

Impact of operational risk

D.

Control weakness

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Questions 56

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

Options:

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Questions 57

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

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Questions 58

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Questions 59

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Questions 60

Who is the MOST appropriate owner for newly identified IT risk?

Options:

A.

The manager responsible for IT operations that will support the risk mitigation efforts

B.

The individual with authority to commit organizational resources to mitigate the risk

C.

A project manager capable of prioritizing the risk remediation efforts

D.

The individual with the most IT risk-related subject matter knowledge

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Questions 61

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

Options:

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

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Questions 62

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Questions 63

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Questions 64

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Questions 65

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Questions 66

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Questions 67

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 68

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

Options:

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

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Questions 69

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

Options:

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

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Questions 70

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

Options:

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

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Questions 71

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

Options:

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

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Questions 72

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

Options:

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

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Questions 73

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization's risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 74

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Questions 75

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

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Questions 76

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

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Questions 77

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

Options:

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Questions 78

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

Options:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

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Questions 79

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

CRISC Question 79

Options:

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

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Questions 80

To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?

Options:

A.

business owner

B.

IT department

C.

Risk manager

D.

Third-party provider

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Questions 81

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

A change in the risk management policy

B.

A major security incident

C.

A change in the regulatory environment

D.

An increase in intrusion attempts

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Questions 82

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

Options:

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

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Questions 83

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

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Questions 84

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

Options:

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

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Questions 85

Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?

Options:

A.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

B.

Implementing loT device software monitoring

C.

Performing periodic risk assessments of loT

D.

Performing secure code reviews

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Questions 86

Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?

Options:

A.

The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.

B.

Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.

C.

Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.

D.

A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.

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Questions 87

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Questions 88

An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

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Questions 89

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

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Questions 90

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

Options:

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Questions 91

After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

Options:

A.

Escalate the issue to the service provider.

B.

Re-certify the application access controls.

C.

Remove the developer's access.

D.

Review the results of pre-migration testing.

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Questions 92

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

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Questions 93

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Questions 94

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

Options:

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

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Questions 95

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

Options:

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Questions 96

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

Options:

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

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Questions 97

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Questions 98

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

Options:

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Questions 99

An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization's change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:

Options:

A.

rolled back changes below management's thresholds.

B.

change-related exceptions per month.

C.

the average implementation time for changes.

D.

number of user stories approved for implementation.

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Questions 100

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

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Questions 101

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

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Questions 102

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Questions 103

An organization is making significant changes to an application. At what point should the application risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon release to production

C.

During backlog scheduling

D.

When reviewing functional requirements

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Questions 104

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Questions 106

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

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Questions 107

Which of the following is MOST important when discussing risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Adopting a common risk taxonomy

B.

Using key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Creating a risk communication policy

D.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 108

Which of the following BEST enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Engaging external risk professionals to periodically review the risk

B.

Prioritizing global standards over local requirements in the risk profile

C.

Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results

D.

Assigning quantitative values to qualitative metrics in the risk register

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Questions 109

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Questions 110

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

Options:

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

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Questions 111

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Questions 112

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?

Options:

A.

The inability to monitor via network management solutions

B.

The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process

C.

The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices

D.

The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware

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Questions 113

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

Options:

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Questions 114

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Questions 115

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

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Questions 116

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

Options:

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Questions 117

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Questions 119

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

Options:

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

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Questions 120

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Questions 121

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance when justifying investment in risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Total cost of ownership

B.

Resource dependency analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Business impact analysis

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Questions 122

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

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Questions 123

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

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Questions 124

Which of the following requirements is MOST important to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure?

Options:

A.

A third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness must be provided at least annually.

B.

Incidents related to data toss must be reported to the organization immediately after they occur.

C.

Risk assessment results must be provided to the organization at least annually.

D.

A cyber insurance policy must be purchased to cover data loss events.

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Questions 125

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Update the risk register.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Prepare a report for senior management.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Questions 126

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

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Questions 127

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

B.

Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

C.

Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D.

Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

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Questions 128

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Questions 129

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Questions 130

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

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Questions 131

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

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Questions 132

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Questions 133

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

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Questions 134

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Questions 135

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 136

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

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Questions 137

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Questions 138

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

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Questions 139

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

Options:

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Questions 140

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization's:

Options:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Questions 141

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

Options:

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Questions 142

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

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Questions 143

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

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Questions 144

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Questions 145

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

Options:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Questions 146

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Questions 147

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

Options:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

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Questions 148

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Questions 149

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

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Questions 150

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Questions 151

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

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Questions 152

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Questions 153

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

Options:

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Questions 154

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Questions 155

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Questions 156

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Questions 157

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

Options:

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

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Questions 158

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

Options:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Questions 159

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Questions 160

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

Options:

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Questions 161

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?

Options:

A.

Identify risk response options.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Document the penalties for noncompliance.

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Questions 162

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Questions 163

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Questions 164

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 165

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Questions 166

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

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Questions 167

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

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Questions 168

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Questions 169

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Questions 170

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

Options:

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Questions 171

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

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Questions 172

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Questions 173

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

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Questions 174

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Questions 175

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Questions 176

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Questions 177

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

Options:

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

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Questions 178

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 179

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Questions 180

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

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Questions 181

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

Options:

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 182

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

Options:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

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Questions 183

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

Options:

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Questions 184

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing generic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The organization’s vision and mission

B.

Resources required for risk mitigation

C.

Impact to business objectives

D.

Risk-related trends within the industry

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Questions 185

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Questions 186

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

Options:

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Questions 187

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

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Questions 188

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

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Questions 189

Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?

Options:

A.

Customers who would be affected by a breach

B.

Auditors, regulators and standards organizations

C.

The business process owner of the exposed assets

D.

The information security manager

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Questions 190

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

Options:

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

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Questions 191

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

Options:

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Questions 192

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

Options:

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Questions 193

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

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Questions 194

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

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Questions 195

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

Options:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

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Questions 196

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of vulnerabilities remediated within the agreed service level

B.

Number of vulnerabilities identified during the period

C.

Number of vulnerabilities re-opened during the period

D.

Percentage of vulnerabilities escalated to senior management

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Questions 197

An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure head

B.

Human resources head

C.

Supplier management head

D.

Application development head

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Questions 198

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 199

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

Options:

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Questions 200

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 201

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Questions 202

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Questions 203

A new regulator/ requirement imposes severe fines for data leakage involving customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). The risk practitioner has recommended avoiding the risk. Which of the following actions would BEST align with this recommendation?

Options:

A.

Reduce retention periods for Pll data.

B.

Move Pll to a highly-secured outsourced site.

C.

Modify business processes to stop collecting Pll.

D.

Implement strong encryption for Pll.

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Questions 204

Which of the following will MOST improve stakeholders' understanding of the effect of a potential threat?

Options:

A.

Establishing a risk management committee

B.

Updating the organization's risk register to reflect the new threat

C.

Communicating the results of the threat impact analysis

D.

Establishing metrics to assess the effectiveness of the responses

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Questions 205

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

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Questions 206

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

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Questions 207

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Identifying additional risk scenarios

B.

Updating the heat map

C.

Assessing loss expectancy

D.

Establishing a risk appetite

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Questions 209

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing current key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The KRIs' source data lacks integrity.

B.

The KRIs are not automated.

C.

The KRIs are not quantitative.

D.

The KRIs do not allow for trend analysis.

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Questions 210

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

Options:

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

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Questions 211

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

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Questions 212

Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing risk responses

B.

Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability

C.

Considering risk factors that can be quantified

D.

Managing the risk by using controls

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Questions 213

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

Options:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

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Questions 214

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

Options:

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Questions 215

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

Options:

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Questions 216

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

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Questions 217

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

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Questions 218

A risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated to reflect this observation?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Questions 219

In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?

Options:

A.

Potential benefits from use of Al solutions

B.

Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions

C.

Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions

D.

Skills required to support Al solutions

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Questions 220

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

Options:

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

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Questions 222

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

Options:

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

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Questions 223

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider who should the risk scenario be reassigned to.

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Vendor manager

D.

Data owner

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Questions 224

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Questions 225

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

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Questions 226

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

Options:

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Questions 227

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

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Questions 228

Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Known vulnerabilities

D.

Cyber insurance

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Questions 229

Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?

Options:

A.

To identify threats introduced by business processes

B.

To identify risk when personal information is collected

C.

To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information

D.

To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations

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Questions 230

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses are effective?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

B.

Risk with low impact is accepted.

C.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

D.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

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Questions 231

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Questions 232

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 233

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Questions 234

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

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Questions 235

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 236

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Implementing internal controls

D.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

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Questions 237

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

Options:

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Questions 238

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

Options:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Questions 239

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Questions 240

A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

reflect the results of risk assessments.

B.

be available to all stakeholders.

C.

effectively support a business maturity model.

D.

be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

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Questions 241

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Questions 242

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

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Questions 243

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?

Options:

A.

Survey device owners.

B.

Rescan the user environment.

C.

Require annual end user policy acceptance.

D.

Review awareness training assessment results

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Questions 244

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices

B.

To assure management that control ownership is assigned

C.

To ensure management understands the current risk status

D.

To align risk management with strategic objectives

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Questions 245

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

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Questions 246

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

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Questions 247

What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Informed

C.

Responsible

D.

Consulted

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Questions 248

The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assemble an incident response team.

B.

Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Develop a risk response plan.

D.

Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 249

A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Negotiating terms of adoption

B.

Understanding the timeframe to implement

C.

Completing a gap analysis

D.

Initiating the conversion

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Questions 250

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Questions 251

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct risk assessments at periodic intervals?

Options:

A.

To ensure emerging risk is identified and monitored

B.

To establish the maturity level of risk assessment processes

C.

To promote a risk-aware culture among staff

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

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Questions 252

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

Options:

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Questions 253

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Questions 254

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of consistently recording risk assessment results in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Assessment of organizational risk appetite

B.

Compliance with best practice

C.

Accountability for loss events

D.

Accuracy of risk profiles

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Questions 255

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Questions 256

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Questions 257

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Questions 258

The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:

Options:

A.

design of appropriate controls.

B.

industry benchmarking of controls.

C.

prioritization of response efforts.

D.

classification of information assets.

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Questions 259

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

Options:

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

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Questions 260

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

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Questions 261

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

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Questions 262

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Questions 263

Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?

Options:

A.

RACI matrix

B.

Financial models

C.

Management support

D.

Industry benchmarking

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Questions 264

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

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Questions 265

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Risk response options

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Process ownership

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Questions 266

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

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Questions 267

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

Options:

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

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Questions 268

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 269

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

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Questions 270

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

D.

Granting access based on least privilege

Buy Now
Questions 271

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

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Questions 272

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

Options:

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Questions 273

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Deterrent

C.

Preventive

D.

Corrective

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Questions 274

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Questions 275

Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?

Options:

A.

Communicate risk to senior management.

B.

Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.

C.

Ensure the control operates effectively.

D.

Identify and assess control weaknesses.

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Questions 276

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate a new cloud-based service to enhance an organization's access management capabilities. When is the BEST time for the risk practitioner to provide opinions on control strength?

Options:

A.

After the initial design

B.

Before production rollout

C.

After a few weeks in use

D.

Before end-user testing

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Questions 277

After the announcement of a new IT regulatory requirement, it is MOST important for a risk practitioner to;

Options:

A.

prepare an IT risk mitigation strategy.

B.

escalate to senior management.

C.

perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

review the impact to the IT environment.

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Questions 278

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 279

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

Options:

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Questions 280

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

Options:

A.

Residual risk and risk appetite

B.

Strength of detective and preventative controls

C.

Effectiveness and efficiency of controls

D.

Inherent risk and risk tolerance

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Questions 281

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

Options:

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

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Questions 282

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Questions 283

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

Options:

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

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Questions 284

An organization is implementing encryption for data at rest to reduce the risk associated with unauthorized access. Which of the following MUST be considered to assess the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Data retention requirements

B.

Data destruction requirements

C.

Cloud storage architecture

D.

Key management

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Questions 285

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

Options:

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Questions 286

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

Options:

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

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Questions 287

Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?

Options:

A.

User self-assessment

B.

User behavior after training

C.

Course evaluation

D.

Quality of training materials

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Questions 288

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations

B.

To identify important business processes in the organization

C.

To estimate resource requirements for related business processes

D.

To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption

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Questions 289

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

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Questions 290

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?

Options:

A.

Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.

B.

There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.

C.

Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.

D.

Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.

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Questions 291

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

Options:

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

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Questions 292

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

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Questions 293

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

Options:

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

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Questions 294

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

Options:

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

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Questions 295

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

Options:

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

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Questions 296

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?

CRISC Question 296

Options:

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Questions 297

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

Options:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Questions 298

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

Options:

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Questions 299

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

Options:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Questions 300

The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:

Options:

A.

evaluate how risk conditions are managed.

B.

determine threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.

D.

establish risk response options.

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Questions 301

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

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Questions 302

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

Options:

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization's technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

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Questions 303

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Questions 304

Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?

Options:

A.

Financial risk is given a higher priority.

B.

Risk with strategic impact is included.

C.

Security strategy is given a higher priority.

D.

Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.

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Questions 305

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

Options:

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

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Questions 306

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

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Questions 307

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

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Questions 308

Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend the business change the application.

B.

Recommend a risk treatment plan.

C.

Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Questions 309

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Questions 310

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

Options:

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

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Questions 311

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?

Options:

A.

Unknown vulnerabilities

B.

Legacy technology systems

C.

Network isolation

D.

Overlapping threats

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Questions 312

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

B.

confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C.

verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

D.

ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

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Questions 313

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Questions 314

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

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Questions 315

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

Options:

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Questions 316

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 317

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Questions 318

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

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Questions 319

Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Introducing an approved IT governance framework

B.

Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)

D.

Implementing a risk classification system

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Questions 320

Which of the following facilitates a completely independent review of test results for evaluating control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Three lines of defense

C.

Compliance review

D.

Quality assurance review

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Questions 321

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Questions 322

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

Options:

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

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Questions 323

Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.

B.

Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.

C.

Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.

D.

Declare a security breach and Inform management.

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Questions 324

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Questions 325

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Questions 326

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Questions 327

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

Options:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Questions 328

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Questions 329

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.

B.

Escalate the situation to risk leadership.

C.

Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.

D.

Review system and process documentation.

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Questions 330

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

Options:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

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Questions 331

Which of the following should management consider when selecting a risk mitigation option?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the enterprise architecture

B.

Cost of control implementation

C.

Reliability of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Reliability of key risk indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 332

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Questions 333

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

Options:

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Questions 334

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Questions 335

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

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Questions 336

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

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Questions 337

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

Options:

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Questions 338

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 339

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Questions 340

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Questions 341

A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:

Options:

A.

user requests and tests the change prior to production.

B.

user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.

C.

programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.

D.

programmer writes and promotes code into production.

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Questions 342

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

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Questions 343

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

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Questions 344

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?

Options:

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

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Questions 345

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Questions 346

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Questions 347

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Questions 348

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Questions 349

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

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Questions 350

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

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Questions 351

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

Options:

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

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Questions 352

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

Options:

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Questions 353

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Questions 354

Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?

Options:

A.

Prioritize risk response options

B.

Reduce likelihood.

C.

Address more than one risk response

D.

Reduce impact

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Questions 355

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

Options:

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

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Questions 356

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

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Questions 357

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

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Questions 358

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

Options:

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Questions 359

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

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Questions 360

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

Options:

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

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Questions 361

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

Options:

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

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Questions 362

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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Questions 363

Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?

Options:

A.

Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.

B.

Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable

C.

Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.

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Questions 364

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?

Options:

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Probability definition

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Questions 365

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

Options:

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

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Questions 366

The MAIN purpose of reviewing a control after implementation is to validate that the control:

Options:

A.

operates as intended.

B.

is being monitored.

C.

meets regulatory requirements.

D.

operates efficiently.

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Questions 367

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Questions 368

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

Options:

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

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Questions 369

During an internal IT audit, an active network account belonging to a former employee was identified. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Conduct a comprehensive review of access management processes.

B.

Declare a security incident and engage the incident response team.

C.

Conduct a comprehensive awareness session for system administrators.

D.

Evaluate system administrators' technical skills to identify if training is required.

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Questions 370

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Questions 371

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

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Questions 372

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Questions 373

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

Options:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Questions 374

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 375

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

Options:

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

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Questions 376

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Questions 377

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Questions 378

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

Options:

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

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Questions 379

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

Options:

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

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Questions 380

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 381

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Questions 382

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

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Questions 383

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Identifying critical information assets

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations.

C.

Creating a data classification scheme

D.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

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Questions 384

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

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Questions 385

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Questions 386

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

Options:

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Questions 387

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Control identification and mitigation

B.

Adoption of a compliance-based approach

C.

Prevention and detection techniques

D.

Scenario analysis and stress testing

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Questions 388

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

Options:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 389

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Questions 390

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Questions 391

The BEST reason to classify IT assets during a risk assessment is to determine the:

Options:

A.

priority in the risk register.

B.

business process owner.

C.

enterprise risk profile.

D.

appropriate level of protection.

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Questions 392

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

Options:

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

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Questions 393

Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk capacity.

D.

residual risk.

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Questions 394

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

Options:

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

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Questions 395

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

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Questions 396

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?

Options:

A.

The probability of application defects will increase

B.

Data confidentiality could be compromised

C.

Increase in the use of redundant processes

D.

The application could fail to meet defined business requirements

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Questions 397

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Questions 398

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

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Questions 399

Which of the following is MOST important to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register?

Options:

A.

The costs associated with mitigation options

B.

The status of identified risk scenarios

C.

The cost-benefit analysis of each risk response

D.

The timeframes for risk response actions

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Questions 400

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

Options:

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

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Questions 401

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Questions 402

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Questions 403

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

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Questions 404

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

Options:

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

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Questions 405

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Questions 406

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

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Questions 407

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Questions 408

Which of the following stakeholders are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Vendors

C.

Regulators

D.

Legal team

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Questions 409

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

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Questions 410

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Questions 411

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

Options:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider's existing controls

D.

The organization's specific control requirements

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Questions 412

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

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Questions 413

Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?

Options:

A.

Conduct penetration testing.

B.

Interview IT operations personnel.

C.

Conduct vulnerability scans.

D.

Review change control board documentation.

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Questions 414

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

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Questions 415

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 416

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

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Questions 417

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Questions 418

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Questions 419

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management's support for IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops

B.

The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities

C.

The percentage of incidents presented to the board

D.

The number of executives attending IT security awareness training

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Questions 420

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

Options:

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Questions 421

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

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Questions 422

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

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Questions 423

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

Options:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

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Questions 424

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Questions 425

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

Options:

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

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Questions 426

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

Options:

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Questions 427

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

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Questions 428

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

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Questions 429

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

Options:

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

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Questions 430

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

Options:

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Questions 431

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

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Questions 432

When preparing a risk status report for periodic review by senior management, it is MOST important to ensure the report includes

Options:

A.

risk exposure in business terms

B.

a detailed view of individual risk exposures

C.

a summary of incidents that have impacted the organization.

D.

recommendations by an independent risk assessor.

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Questions 433

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Questions 434

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

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Questions 435

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization's customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management's decision?

Options:

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

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Questions 436

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

Options:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

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Questions 437

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Questions 438

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Questions 439

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

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Questions 440

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

Options:

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

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Questions 441

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 442

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Questions 443

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Questions 444

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 445

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

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Questions 446

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?

Options:

A.

Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).

B.

Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.

C.

Require independent control assessments.

D.

Obtain vendor references from existing customers.

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Questions 447

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?

Options:

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Questions 448

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Questions 449

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

Options:

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Questions 450

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 451

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

Options:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Questions 452

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Questions 453

An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Questions 454

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

Options:

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

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Questions 455

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

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Questions 456

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

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Questions 457

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

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Questions 458

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

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Questions 459

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

Options:

A.

To provide input to the organization's risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans

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Questions 460

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Understanding and prioritization of critical processes

B.

Completion of the business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Identification of regulatory consequences

D.

Reduction of security and business continuity threats

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Questions 461

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

CRISC Question 461

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

Options:

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

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Questions 462

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

Options:

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Questions 463

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered?

Options:

A.

Reassessing control effectiveness of the process

B.

Conducting a post-implementation review to determine lessons learned

C.

Reporting key performance indicators (KPIs) for core processes

D.

Establishing escalation procedures for anomaly events

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Questions 464

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Questions 465

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

Options:

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

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Questions 466

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Questions 467

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

Options:

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

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Questions 468

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

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Questions 469

An internal audit report reveals that a legacy system is no longer supported Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action before recommending a risk response'

Options:

A.

Review historical application down me and frequency

B.

Assess the potential impact and cost of mitigation

C.

identify other legacy systems within the organization

D.

Explore the feasibility of replacing the legacy system

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Questions 470

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

Options:

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Questions 471

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of stakeholder involvement in risk scenario development?

Options:

A.

Ability to determine business impact

B.

Up-to-date knowledge on risk responses

C.

Decision-making authority for risk treatment

D.

Awareness of emerging business threats

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Questions 472

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Apr 13, 2025
Questions: 1575

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