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CTFL_Syll_4.0 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage criteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques

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Questions 5

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 5

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

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Questions 6

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

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Questions 7

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 8

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Questions 9

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 9

Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5

B.

TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1

D.

TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3

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Questions 10

The following 4 equivalence classes are given:

CTFL_Syll_4.0 Question 10

Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?

Options:

A.

-100; 100:1000; 1001

B.

-500; 0; 100; 1000

C.

-99; 99:101; 1001

D.

-1000; -100; 100; 1000

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is true?

Options:

A.

Unlike dynamic testing, which can be also performed manually, static testing cannot be performed without specialized tools

B.

Static testing is usually much less cost-effective than dynamic testing

C.

Unlike dynamic testing, which focuses on detecting potential defects, static testing focuses on detecting failures which may be due to actual defects

D.

Both static testing and dynamic testing can be used to highlight issues associated with non-functional characteristics

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Questions 12

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B.

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

C.

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

D.

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

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Questions 13

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

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Questions 14

A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumeric characters, and its first character must be a letter. As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID.

What is the number of partitions to cover?

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

3

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

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Questions 16

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

Options:

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

C.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

D.

It is an example of test implementation tool

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Questions 17

A virtual service emulating a real third-party service and the automated test scripts (aimed at testing the system under test) that interact with that service, are test work products that are typically created during:

Options:

A.

Test monitoring and control

B.

Test implementation

C.

Test design

D.

Test analysis

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Questions 18

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

B.

When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets

C.

Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code

D.

In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the main difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control (QC)?

Options:

A.

QA is a process-oriented approach, while QC is a product-oriented approach.

B.

QA is the responsibility of everyone on a project, while QC is the responsibility of a dedicated team.

C.

QA is preventive, while QC is corrective.

D.

QA is focused on implementation, while QC is focused on improvement.

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

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Questions 22

Which of the following is a good testing practice which is applicable INDEPENDENT of the software development lifecycle followed?

Options:

A.

Not all development activities should have corresponding test activities

B.

Each test level should have an appropriate test objective

C.

Reviews should be done after the work products have been finalized

D.

Large amount of redundancy between test levels is good because it prevents bug leakage

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Questions 23

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during:

Options:

A.

test execution

B.

test design

C.

test analysis

D.

test planning

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Questions 24

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

Options:

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

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Questions 25

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

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Questions 26

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

Options:

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Questions 27

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

Options:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

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Questions 28

A typical test objective is to:

Options:

A.

determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases

B.

verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements

C.

plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

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Questions 29

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Questions 30

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

B.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

C.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

D.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

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Questions 31

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

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Questions 32

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you need to decide on the order of test execution. Which of the following lists the correct sequence of test execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

Test CasePriorityDependencies

Test A3-

Test B1TestD

TestC2Test A

Test D3•

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

D-A-B-C

D.

C-B-A-D

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Questions 33

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

Options:

A.

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

B.

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code.

C.

White-box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

D.

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

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Questions 34

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Options:

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

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Questions 35

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 36

A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Options:

A.

test design

B.

test analysis

C.

test implementation

D.

test monitoring and control

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Questions 37

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 38

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 39

A document describes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets. Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified. This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Options:

A.

test design

B.

test analysis

C.

test implementation

D.

test monitoring and control

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Questions 40

Which of the following types of bug are more likely to be found by static testing then by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

A sub-system that does not perform the intended functionality

B.

Variables that were declared in the code without initialization

C.

Functions that take much longer time to complete than expected

D.

Crashes of the application

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Questions 41

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Questions 42

Which of the following IS the BEST example of whole team approach

Options:

A.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

D.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

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Questions 43

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is true?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant Q2

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3. and they are usually included in a continuous integration process

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing

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Questions 45

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stories should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll_4.0
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0
Last Update: Nov 15, 2024
Questions: 151

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