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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What types of actions and controls are included in the PERFORM component of the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

Internal, external, and hybrid actions and controls.

B.

Mandatory, voluntary, and optional actions and controls.

C.

Proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls.

D.

Reactive, preventive, and corrective actions and controls.

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Questions 5

What is the significance of “assurance objectivity” in providing a higher level of assurance?

Options:

A.

It is only important for high levels of assurance in financial audits

B.

It is not relevant to the level of assurance and does not affect the assurance process

C.

It contributes to a higher level of assurance by enhancing impartiality and credibility

D.

It is determined by the governing authority and enhances the level of assurance

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Questions 6

In the IACM, what is the role of Governance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist the governing authority in constraining and constraining the organization

B.

To develop and implement innovative business strategies

C.

To engage with stakeholders and address their concerns

D.

To monitor and evaluate the performance of suppliers and vendors

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Questions 7

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

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Questions 8

In the LEARN component, what is the difference between external context and internal context?

Options:

A.

External context includes the organization's risk management policies, while internal contextincludes its compliance procedures

B.

External context represents the operating environment, while internal context represents capabilities and resources

C.

External context refers to the organization's financial performance, while internal context refers to its governance structure

D.

External context encompasses the organization's mission and vision, while internal context encompasses its values and culture

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Questions 9

What is a potential limitation of using qualitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis techniques always lead to incorrect conclusions about risk, reward, and compliance.

B.

Qualitative analysis techniques are not applicable to the analysis of risk and reward.

C.

Qualitative analysis techniques rely on descriptive data and subjective judgments, which may result in less precise estimations compared to quantitative analysis.

D.

Qualitative analysis techniques are only useful for analyzing compliance-related risks.

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Questions 10

Which of the following best describes the overall process of analyzing risk culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

Determining the level of risk-taking that each employee is comfortable with.

B.

Assessing the organization's ability to attract and retain top talent that is willing to take risks to achieve objectives.

C.

Evaluating the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance levels for each type of risk.

D.

Analyzing the climate and mindsets about how the workforce perceives risk, its impact on work, and its integration with decision-making.

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Questions 11

What is the difference between an organization’s mission and vision?

Options:

A.

The mission is focused on external stakeholders, while the vision is focused on internal stakeholders.

B.

The mission is a short-term goal or set of goals, while the vision is a long-term goal or set ofgoals.

C.

The mission is an objective that states who the organization serves, what it does, and what it hopes to achieve, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be and why it matters.

D.

The mission is a financial target, while the vision is a non-financial target.

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Questions 12

Why is it important to establish decision-making criteria in the alignment process?

Options:

A.

To calculate the return on investment (ROI) of alignment activities

B.

To ensure that the organization stays on track and achieves its objectives

C.

To comply with industry regulations and standards

D.

To evaluate the performance of individual employees and teams

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Questions 13

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

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Questions 14

What is the term used to describe the outcome or potential outcome of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Impact

C.

Condition

D.

Effect

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Questions 15

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

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Questions 16

What are some examples of legal and regulatory factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market research, customer feedback, and competitive analysis

B.

How the organization's legal department and outside legal counsel coordinate activities

C.

Laws, rules, regulations, litigation, and judicial or administrative opinions

D.

Enforcement actions and litigation against the company

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Questions 17

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

Options:

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

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Questions 18

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

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Questions 19

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

Options:

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

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Questions 20

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

Options:

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

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Questions 21

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

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Questions 22

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization’s decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost

B.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries

C.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations

D.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed

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Questions 23

What is the difference between "inherent effect" and "residual effect" of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of reward

B.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls

C.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of risk, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of reward

D.

Inherent effect is the effect of uncertainty in the presence of actions and controls, while residual effect is the effect of uncertainty in the absence of actions and controls

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Questions 24

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

Options:

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

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Questions 25

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

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Questions 26

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

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Questions 27

How can inquiry be conceptualized in terms of information-gathering mechanisms?

Options:

A.

As a "pushing" mechanism where individuals push information to external sources.

B.

As a "pulling" mechanism where individuals pull information from people and systems for follow-up and action.

C.

As a mechanism that relies solely on technology-based tools.

D.

As a centralized process managed by a single department.

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Questions 28

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

Options:

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

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Questions 29

What are some examples of informal mechanisms that can capture notifications within an organization?

Options:

A.

An open-door policy and direct communication with management.

B.

Public announcements and press releases.

C.

Standard reporting forms and documentation.

D.

Audits and third-party assessments.

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Questions 30

What is the purpose of after-action reviews?

Options:

A.

They are used to provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

B.

They are used to ensure the protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters

C.

They uncover root causes of events and help improve proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls

D.

They are used to escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external

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Questions 31

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

Options:

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

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Questions 32

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

Options:

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

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Questions 33

How can inconsistent incentives impact the perception of employees and business partners?

Options:

A.

They can reduce the risk of legal disputes

B.

They can lead to perceptions of favoritism and mistrust

C.

They can increase employee motivation and productivity

D.

They can improve the company’s public image

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Questions 34

What are some systems-based methods for conducting inquiries?

Options:

A.

Coordinating survey efforts throughout the organization

B.

Avoiding any connection between inquiry responses and performance appraisals

C.

Continuous control monitoring, log management, application performance monitoring, management dashboards

D.

Observations, meetings, focus groups, and individual conversations

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Questions 35

Why is assurance never considered absolute?

Options:

A.

Because it is only applicable to certain industries and sectors

B.

Because the subject matter, assurance providers, information producers, and information consumers are all fallible

C.

Because it does not provide a written guarantee of the accuracy and reliability of the subject matter

D.

Because it is solely based on the opinions and judgments of the assurance provider

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Questions 36

What is the difference between an organization that is being "Good" and being a "Principled Performer"?

Options:

A.

An organization must measure up to the Principled Performance definition to be a "Principled Performer," regardless of whether its objectives are subjectively perceived or preferred as "Good" or "Bad."

B.

A "Principled Performer" always pursues objectives that are considered "Good" by society.

C.

There is no difference: "Good" and a "Principled Performer" are synonymous.

D.

A "Principled Performer" is an organization that donates a significant portion of its profits to charity.

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Questions 37

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

Options:

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

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Questions 38

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

Options:

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

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Questions 39

Why is it important for an organization to sense and analyze changes in context within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management framework

B.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements related to governance and risk management

C.

To ensure that the organization’s financial statements are accurate and up to date

D.

To determine necessary changes to the organization and to understand which changes are significant and which are distractions

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Questions 40

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Questions 41

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

Options:

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Questions 42

In the context of assurance activities, what does the term "assurance objectivity" refer to?

Options:

A.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can adhere to industry standards and best practices in performing audits.

B.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can provide accurate and reliable information to stakeholders on which they can form an opinion about the subject matter themselves.

C.

The degree to which an Assurance Provider can be impartial, disinterested, independent, and free to conduct necessary activities to form an opinion about the subject matter.

D.

To the degree to which an Assurance Provider can minimize costs and maximize efficiency in performing audits.

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Questions 43

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

Options:

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Questions 44

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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Questions 45

What are some examples of environmental factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Climate and natural resources

B.

Organizational procurement, vendor selection, and contract negotiation for hazardous waste disposal

C.

Organizational performance metrics, goal setting, and progress tracking regarding climate-related projects

D.

Organizational response to new carbon emission regulations

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Questions 46

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

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Questions 47

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

Options:

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

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Questions 48

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

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Questions 49

What is the term used to describe the measure of the negative effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Harm

C.

Obstacle

D.

Threat

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Questions 50

Which aspect of culture includes how the organization objectively examines and judges the effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience of critical activities and outcomes?

Options:

A.

Management culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Governance culture

D.

Assurance culture

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Questions 51

What is the significance of assigning a single owner to each objective?

Options:

A.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures clear accountability and authority to ensure successful achievement

B.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures that the owner receives recognition and rewards for achieving the objective

C.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to delegate tasks to other employees to achieve the objective

D.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to make unilateral decisions without consulting other stakeholders, which is necessary to keep plans for achieving the objective on track

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Questions 52

What is the relationship between monitoring and assurance activities in identifying opportunities for improvement?

Options:

A.

Monitoring activities focus on improvement, while assurance activities focus on risk assessment

B.

Monitoring and assurance activities have no relationship and operate independently

C.

Monitoring activities are related to financial improvement, while assurance activities are related to operational improvement

D.

Both monitoring and assurance activities identify opportunities to improve total performance

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Questions 53

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the likelihood and impact of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

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Questions 54

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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Questions 55

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

Options:

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Questions 56

Why is it important to ensure that stakeholders raise issues directly with the organization rather than using external pathways?

Options:

A.

To afford more flexibility in corrective action and allow the organization to address concerns promptly

B.

To prevent stakeholders from getting a whistleblower reward

C.

To ensure that stakeholders' concerns are hidden from the media

D.

To provide time to fix the identified issue and not have to report it to any stakeholders

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Questions 57

The Critical Disciplines skills of Audit & Assurance help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Managing mergers and acquisitions, evaluating investment opportunities, conducting due diligence, and integrating acquired businesses

B.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

C.

Prioritizing assurance activities, planning and performing assessments, using testing techniques, and communicating to enhance confidence

D.

Identifying critical physical and digital assets, assessing related risks, addressing related risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and performing crisis response

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Questions 58

What is the role of a values statement in an organization?

Options:

A.

A values statement reflects the shared beliefs and expectations of the organization's leadership, employees, and stakeholders and serves as a guide for establishing a positive and productive organizational culture.

B.

A values statement is a legal document that outlines the financial obligations and liabilities of the organization that contribute to its value.

C.

A values statement is a formal agreement between the organization and its suppliers to ensure the timely delivery of goods and services that are essential to building the organization’s value.

D.

A values statement is a marketing tool used to attract new customers and investors to the organization.

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Questions 59

In the context of Total Performance, what considerations are made for resilience in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of employees who have completed advanced training.

B.

The frequency of updates to the education program's curriculum.

C.

The availability of online and offline training materials.

D.

Contingency plans for system failure, slack in timelines, and availability of backup staff.

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Questions 60

What is the primary focus of management actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

To oversee employees and meet target objectives for the unit being managed.

B.

To directly address opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

C.

To minimize costs and maximize profits.

D.

To ensure strict adherence to external regulations and internal policies.

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Questions 61

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves acting deliberately in advance to reduce the risk of being caught off guard?

Options:

A.

Proactive

B.

Versatile

C.

Collaborative

D.

Assertive

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Questions 62

What is the role of suitable criteria in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

These criteria are performance metrics used to assess the efficiency of the organization's operations.

B.

These criteria are standards for the ethical conduct of employees and stakeholders.

C.

These criteria are guidelines for the allocation of resources within the organization.

D.

These criteria are benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results.

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Questions 63

What is the difference between an organization’s mission and vision?

Options:

A.

The mission is a financial target, while the vision is a non-financial target.

B.

The mission is an objective that states who the organization serves, what it does, and what it hopes to achieve, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be and why it matters.

C.

The mission is a short-term goal or set of goals, while the vision is a long-term goal or set of goals.

D.

The mission is focused on external stakeholders, while the vision is focused on internal stakeholders.

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Jan 28, 2025
Questions: 212

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