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ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is the main difference between quality assurance (QA) and quality control

Options:

A.

A is the responsibility of everyone on a project, while QC is the responsibility of a dedicated team.

B.

A is a process-oriented approach, while QC is a product-oriented approach.

C.

A is focused on implementation, while QC is focused on improvement.

D.

A is preventive, while QC is corrective.

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Questions 5

Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

B.

Potentially endless loops

C.

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

D.

Security vulnerabilities

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Questions 6

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is “NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

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Questions 7

The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

Options:

A.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int y = 3.

X = y=z;

B.

int x = 1.

int y = 2.

int z = 3.

X = z-y

C.

int x = 1.

Int y = 2.

Int z = 3.

Z = x +y

D.

int y = 2

Int z = 3.

Y = z+y

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Questions 8

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

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Questions 9

Determining the schedule for each testing activity and test milestones for a test project, using activity estimates, available resources, and other constraints is a typical task performed during

Options:

A.

Test execution

B.

Test design.

C.

Test analysis.

D.

Test planning

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Questions 10

The acceptance criteria associated with a user story:

Options:

A.

are often written in a rule-oriented format using the template referred to as "Given/When/Then"

B.

are often documented following in rule-oriented format using the following template: "As a [role], I want [feature], so that I can [benefit]"

C.

can be written in different formats and represent an aspect of a user story referred to as confirmation' of the so called "3 C's"

D.

must be written in one of the two following formats: scenario-oriented or rule-oriented

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Questions 11

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

Options:

A.

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow

the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

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Questions 12

For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

Options:

A.

Use case based testing

B.

Decision table

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

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Questions 13

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 14

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Specification Based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Experience based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Questions 15

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

Options:

A.

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

B.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

C.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

D.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.

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Questions 17

Which of the following statements is true?

Select exactly one option (1 out of 4)!

Options:

A.

Errors are the inevitable result of software failure.

B.

Defects in the program code may be caused by environmental conditions.

C.

Defects in the program code may result in failures in the program during execution.

D.

Any deviation of the actual from the expected result represents an error.

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Questions 18

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

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Questions 19

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Questions 20

Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

ISTQB-CTFL Question 20

Using the equivalence partitioning technique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,10,21,40}

B.

{8,10,25,40}

C.

{7,10,25,29}

D.

{7,10,25,40}

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Questions 21

Why is it important to select a test technique?

Options:

A.

There are usually loo many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the number of tests.

B.

The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.

C.

Selecting the right test technique in a given situation Increases the effectiveness of the test process Oy creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.

D.

Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule.

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

Options:

A.

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

B.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

C.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

D.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

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Questions 23

For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

Options:

A.

6

B.

4

C.

2

D.

6

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Questions 24

Which statement is true regarding confirmation testing and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Confirmation testing confirms the quality of the test being run while regression testing ensures that the software still works after a change has been made.

B.

Confirmation testing is an optional activity whilst regression testing is not negotiable.

C.

Confirmation testing aims to verify that a defect has been resolved and regression testing ensuring that existing functionality still works after a change.

D.

Testers' involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

E.

TESTER Involvement is essential whilst running retesting and regression testing.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Questions 26

Which is an advantage of using testers that are independent from the development team?

Options:

A.

Independent testers support the developers with their feedback on coding rules and architecture design.

B.

Developers can delegate their sense of responsibility for quality to testers.

C.

Independent testers have a different perspective and can find defects that developers miss.

D.

Independent testers will identify themselves more with the project and the project goals and have good relations with the development team.

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Questions 27

Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?

Options:

A.

Testing an application m development environment which is similar to the production environment

B.

Testing the system based on specifications using simulator for a sub-system

C.

Testing an application's behaviour to check if it fulfils business needs

D.

Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway

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Questions 28

In maintenance testing, what is the relationship between impact analysis and regression testing?

Options:

A.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for only the tests that have detected faults in previous SW release

B.

There is no relationship between impact analysis and regression testing.

C.

Impact analysis requires a regression testing for all program elements which were newly integrated (new functionalities).

D.

The impact analysis is used to evaluate the amount of regression testing to be performed.

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Questions 29

Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

Options:

A.

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

B.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

C.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

D.

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

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Questions 30

Which of the following statements regarding the impact of the chosen software development lifecycle model on testing is true?

Options:

A.

The chosen software development lifecycle model has no impact on the number of regression test cases.

B.

The chosen software development lifecycle model influences when testing activities should start and end.

C.

The chosen software development lifecycle model determines the type of tests to be performed.

D.

The chosen software development lifecycle model does not affect the scope of the non-functional tests and the test tools to be used.

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Questions 31

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

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Questions 32

Which of the following best describes the relationship between a test progress report and a test summary report?

Options:

A.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report.

B.

The test report prepared during a test activity may be referred to as a test summary report, while a test report prepared at the end of a test activity may be referred to as a test progress report.

C.

There is no difference between a test progress report and a test summary report.

D.

Both the test progress report and the test summary report should always be generated via an automated tool.

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Questions 33

Which of the statements on confirmation testing and regression testing is correct?

Options:

A.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to errors

B.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that changes have no undesired effects

C.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that errors have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

D.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

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Questions 34

You work as a test manager for a supplier of PC games which can be purchased and downloaded via an online store. A tester from your team recorded the following failure caused by a defect:

    Issue ID: DEF00223167

    Title: Saving after shopping in online shop fails

    Date: 2023-04-18

    Tester: Sabine Meier

    Description: "Saving the game immediately after purchasing it in the online store fails. As a result, the purchase is paid for, but the goods are not delivered."

    Attached data: "log.txt", "screen1.bmp", "screen2.bmp"

During the review of the defect report, you notice that at least one important piece of information is missing for defining how to deal with the defect. Which one?

Options:

A.

Severity of the defect

B.

Name of the developer who most likely caused the defect

C.

Tracking the quality of the work product

D.

Ideas for test process improvement

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Questions 35

Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?

Options:

A.

To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.

B.

To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.

C.

To find failures and defects

D.

To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.

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Questions 36

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

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Questions 37

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

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Questions 38

A number of characteristics are given for impact of SDLC on the testing effort.

i. Finishing of requirements review leading to test analysis

ii. Both - static and dynamic testing performed at unit testing level

iii. Frequent regression testing may need to be performed

iv Extensive product documentation

v. More use of exploratory testing

Which of the following statements is MOST correct?

Options:

A.

i and iv are characteristics of sequential models; ii. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

B.

ii and iv are characteristics of sequential models; i. iii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

C.

iii and iv are characteristics of sequential models and i. ii and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

D.

ii and iii are characteristics of sequential models; iv and v are characteristics of iterative and incremental models

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Questions 39

Which of the following statements does NOT describe good testing practice, regardless of the SDLC chosen?

Options:

A.

All development activities are subject to quality control.

B.

To avoid redundancy, different test levels have specific test objectives.

C.

To adhere to the principle of early testing, test analysis for a specific test level takes place during the corresponding phase of the SDLC.

D.

Testers are involved in the review of work results as soon as the documents have been approved by the stakeholders.

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Questions 40

Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

Options:

A.

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

B.

The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends

C.

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

D.

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

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Questions 41

A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:

Options:

A.

Identification of unreachable code

B.

Report on adherence to the coding standards

C.

Number of comment lines

D.

Number of source code lines

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Questions 42

Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

Options:

A.

When a new test automation tool is launched

B.

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

C.

When it is easy to automate

D.

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements regarding the testing quadrants model is correct?

Options:

A.

The testing quadrants model provides a way of differentiating between types of tests and assists in explaining them to stakeholders.

B.

The testing quadrants model assigns test types to the corresponding V-Model test levels.

C.

With the testing quadrants model, tests can be either business-oriented or product-oriented.

D.

The testing quadrants model assigns tests from one of the four quadrants to each iteration in the Agile development.

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Questions 44

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY part of a test plan?

Options:

A.

The budget and schedule for the test project.

B.

A detailed analysis of the defects found and their causes.

C.

A detailed report on the test results after the test project is completed.

D.

A list of test logs from the test execution.

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Questions 45

Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Requirements based testing

C.

Metric based approach

D.

Regression testing

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Questions 46

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system

B.

Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics

C.

Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests

D.

The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard

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Questions 47

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

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Questions 48

Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

Options:

A.

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

B.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

C.

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

D.

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

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Questions 49

Which of the following is an example of tasks most associated with the test design activity?

Options:

A.

The project manager updates the project schedule as key test tasks are completed

B.

Test data, derived from production data, is loaded into the test environment

C.

Every day. the tester notes the status of his/her test cases in preparation for daily reports

D.

The identification of test execution and test automation tools

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Questions 50

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

ISTQB-CTFL Question 50

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

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Questions 51

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

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Questions 52

Consider a review for a high-level architectural document written by a software architect. The architect does most of the review preparation work, including distributing the document to reviewers before the review meeting. However, reviewers are not required to analyze the document in advance, and during the review meeting the software architect explains the document step by step. The only goal of this review is to establish a common understanding of the software architecture that will be used in a software development project.

Which of the following review types does this review refer to?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Audit

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

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Questions 53

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes branch testing?

Options:

A.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

C.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

D.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

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Questions 55

Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?

i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.

ii. Testing everything Is possible.

iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.

iv. Defects cluster together.

v. Testing is context dependent.

vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.

vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv, v, vi and vii

B.

I, ii, v. vi and vii

C.

iii. iv, v. vi and vii

D.

ii, iii, iv, v and vi

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Questions 56

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing during exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

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Questions 57

Which of the following are valid testing principles?

I) Exhaustive testing is in general impossible.

II) Exhaustive testing should be executed for code intended to be reused.

III) Testing may guarantee that a program is correct.

IV) Testing cannot guarantee that a program is correct.

V) Defects cluster together in certain areas of the product.

Options:

A.

I, IV, V

B.

II, Iv

C.

I, V

D.

I, Ill

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Questions 58

Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Options:

A.

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

B.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

C.

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

D.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

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Questions 59

Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating the creation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test design and implementation tools are specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

B.

Static testing tools as they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

C.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/CD.

D.

Test execution and coverage tools facilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

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Questions 60

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

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Questions 61

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about error guessing?

Options:

A.

While reviewing the test cases, testers have to make guess about the kind of mistakes test cases might contain

B.

Fault attacks are an example of a technique for implementing error guessing.

C.

Error guessing depends on the developers guessing what mistakes testers might make and miss the possible defects

D.

Error guessing doesn't make use of past failures as past failures are not indicators of correct defects

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Questions 63

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

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Questions 64

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

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Questions 65

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

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Questions 66

Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined. Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

Options:

A.

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

B.

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

C.

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

D.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

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Questions 67

Which of the options below about statement testing is correct?

Options:

A.

100% statement coverage ensures that there are no more defects in the test object.

B.

100% statement coverage ensures that every transition between two statements has been executed at least once.

C.

100% statement coverage ensures that there are no unreachable program parts (dead code).

D.

100% statement coverage is a useful exit criterion for system testing.

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Questions 68

Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Options:

A.

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

B.

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

C.

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

D.

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

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Questions 69

Which ONE of the following statements about state transition testing is correct?

Options:

A.

The state transition diagram explicitly shows all invalid transitions.

B.

The size of the state table depends on the number of possible transitions between the states

C.

Usually it is not possible to create tests to cover ell transitions and all stales

D.

All transitions between states are explicitly shown in the state table.

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Questions 70

Which of the following statements correctly describes error guessing?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a testing technique that uses the experience and knowledge of testers to create test cases that may reveal suspected defects.

B.

Error guessing is a testing technique in which test cases are created to exercise the items in a checklist.

C.

Error guessing is a testing technique in which the testers dynamically create test cases based on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

D.

Error guessing is a testing technique in which the tester creates test cases based on the analysis of the specified behavior of the test object without knowing its internal structure.

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Questions 71

The whole-team approach:

Options:

A.

promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques

B.

is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories

C.

promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product

D.

is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence

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Questions 72

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?

Options:

A.

It identifies defects in modules and classes.

B.

Simulators and stubs may be required.

C.

It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.

D.

It may be applied using a test-first approach.

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Questions 73

In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Options:

A.

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

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Questions 74

Which of the following statements is assigned correctly as a project or product risk?

Options:

A.

The software does not perform its intended functions according to the specification: this is a project risk.

B.

The gradual expansion of the project scope result in significant rework: this is a product risk.

C.

The system architecture does not adequately support some of the non-functional requirements: this is a product risk.

D.

User experience feedback does not meet product expectations: this is a project risk.

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Questions 75

Which ONE of the following options is NOT a test objective?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether specified requirements have been fulfilled

B.

Triggering failures and finding defects

C.

Finding errors

D.

Validating whether the test object is complete and works as expected by the stakeholders

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Questions 76

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

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Questions 77

Which of the following options is a success factor for formal reviews (e.g. inspections)?

Options:

A.

Provide participants an adequate amount of time for preparation for the review.

B.

Evaluate participants on how they spend their time and attention to detail.

C.

Use only one type of review so that participants do not have to get used to a different type of review process as often.

D.

Conduct the review in a few large sections, each of which participants are to review as a whole.

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Questions 78

What role in a formal or technical review should mediate between different opinions to ensure an effective review?

Options:

A.

Scribe (or recorder)

B.

Manager

C.

Moderator (or facilitator)

D.

Reviewer

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Questions 79

A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

Options:

A.

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

B.

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

C.

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

D.

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

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Questions 80

Which of the following options is correct with respect to the differentiation of black-box techniques, white-box techniques, and experience-based testing?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques are based on requirements, white-box tests on source code. Therefore, black-box test techniques are always performed at higher test levels (e.g. system and acceptance level) and white-box test techniques at lower test levels.

B.

Experience-based testing can complement white-box and black-box test techniques well or can be used if the basic principles for these test techniques are lacking.

C.

Experience-based testing is an extension of black-box test techniques, since experience-based test techniques also do not require knowledge about the source code.

D.

The coverage items can be specified in advance, e.g., coverage of statements, states or checklists, for all three of the categories mentioned above.

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Questions 81

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

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Questions 82

Test automation allows you to:

Options:

A.

demonstrate the absence of defects

B.

produce tests that are less subject to human errors

C.

avoid performing exploratory testing

D.

increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects

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Questions 83

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1.A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2.The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3.The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4.The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5.The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6.The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

Options:

A.

Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4

B.

Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6

C.

Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6

D.

Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3

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Questions 84

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Options:

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

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Questions 85

Which of the following is a typical product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor usability of the software

B.

A problem in the code developed by a 3rd party

C.

Low quality of the configuration data, test data and tests

D.

Problem in defining the right requirements

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Questions 86

Which ONE of the following statements would you expect to be the MOST DIRECT advantage of the whole-team approach?

Options:

A.

Capitalizing on the combined skills of business representatives, testers, and developers working together to contribute to project success.

B.

Reducing the involvement of business representatives because of enhanced communication and collaboration between testers and developers.

C.

Avoiding requirements misunderstandings that may not have been detected until dynamic testing when they are more expensive to fix.

D.

Having an automated build and test process, at least once a day, that detects integration errors early and quickly.

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Questions 87

How can testing contribute to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Testing help to measure the quality of software.

B.

Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.

C.

Testing removes errors in the software.

D.

Testing eliminates the risk with software.

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Questions 88

Match each objective to the correct test level

Objective:

A)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the system are as designed andspecified.

B)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functlonalbehaviorsof the interfaces are as designed.

C)Verifying whetherthe functionalandnon-functionalbehaviorsof the components are as designedand specified.

D)Establishing confidence in the quality of the systemas a whole.

Test Level:

1.Component testing.

2.Integration testing.

3.System testing.

4.Acceptance testing.

Options:

A.

A3, B2. C4. D1

B.

A2, B3, Cl, D4

C.

A3. B2. C1. D4

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Questions 89

A software development company invests heavily in tools to support the entire software development lifecycle, including testing. They have a tool that allows automated creation and installation of builds and subsequent execution of various types of automated tests. Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about this type of test tool?

Options:

A.

It is an example of collaboration tool

B.

It is an example of test implementation tool

C.

It is an example of DevOps related tools

D.

It is an example of automated unit testing tool

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Questions 90

Which of the following characterizations applies to a test tool used for the analysis of a developer's code prior to its execution?

Options:

A.

Tool support for test design and implementation.

B.

Tool support for static testing.

C.

Tool support for test execution and logging.

D.

Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.

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Questions 91

Given some statements about independence of testing

i. Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii. Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii. Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses

Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

Options:

A.

ii and iv

B.

iii and iv

C.

i and iii

D.

i and iv

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Questions 92

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

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Questions 93

Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?

Options:

A.

All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find

B.

The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.

C.

All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.

D.

Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process

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Questions 94

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Questions 95

Which of the following is the BEST example of whole team approach?

Options:

A.

Anyone can perform a task they are capable of

B.

Sharing same physical workspace is a must

C.

Testing is the responsibility of the entire team

D.

Developers should depend on the business analysts as there is no distinction between testers and developers

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Questions 96

The ISTOB glossary defines Quality Assurance as: "Pail or quality management focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be fulfilled. Which of the following Is not one of the Quality Assurance activity?

Options:

A.

Requirements elicitation

B.

Defect analysis

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Performance Testing

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Questions 97

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Testing without defined time-boxes

D.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

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Questions 98

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

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Questions 99

Which of the following statements about estimation of the test effort is WRONG?

Options:

A.

Once the test effort is estimated, resources can be identified and a schedule can be drawn up.

B.

Effort estimate can be inaccurate because the quality of the product under tests is not known.

C.

Effort estimate depends on the budget of the project.

D.

Experience based estimation is one of the estimation techniques.

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Questions 100

A possible risk of introducing test automation is:

Options:

A.

the tool may not be fit-for-purpose.

B.

the tool may create additional development dependencies.

C.

the tool may not be compatible with the development platform.

D.

the tool will be owned and maintained by developers and replace testers.

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Questions 101

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product: 1. Risk register 2 Risk information

3. Test cases

4. Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C Test design work products

C.

Test monitoring and control work products

D.

1-A.2-D.3-C.4-e

E.

1-A.2-C.3-B.4-D

F.

1-C, 2-A. 3-D, 4-B

G.

1-B. 2-D, 3-A.4-C

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Questions 102

The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

Options:

A.

is a false myth

B.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

C.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

D.

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

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Questions 103

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

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Questions 104

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

Options:

A.

5

B.

4

C.

8

D.

16

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Questions 105

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

A.

Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details

B.

Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product

C.

Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity

D.

Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity

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Questions 106

Which of the following statements regarding the test-first approach (principle of early testing) is true?

Options:

A.

An approach where the tests are written only as needed.

B.

An approach where the tests are written after implementation.

C.

An approach where the tests are written during implementation.

D.

An approach where the tests are written before implementation.

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Questions 107

You are a test manager responsible for implementing risk-based testing in your organization which deals with software in the healthcare domain. You are writing a handbook of various product risk mitigation options. Which ONE of the following options correctly represent the correct mitigation options?

Options:

A.

Using a third party testing company to transfer the risk to that company

B.

Choosing a tool for automated unit testing to reduce the risks

C.

Increasing the number of testers to be able to take care of all the risks

D.

Selecting a tester with required knowledge related to compliance and standards

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Questions 108

Which ONE of the following options identifies the perspectives through which a collective authorship process generates a shared vision of user stories?

Options:

A.

Product owner, development, and testing

B.

Business, architecture, and testing

C.

Business, development, and testing

D.

Business, development, and acceptance testing

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Questions 109

Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

Options:

A.

Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered

B.

Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests

C.

Archive the testware for use in future test projects

D.

Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project

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Questions 110

Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Options:

A.

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

B.

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

C.

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

D.

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

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Questions 111

Which of the following activities does NOT belong to a typical technical review?

Options:

A.

Pre-meeting preparation by reviewers

B.

Using checklists during the meeting

C.

Inviting end-users to the meeting

D.

Preparation of a review report

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Questions 112

The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).

Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

B.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

C.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

D.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

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Questions 113

Consider the following user story about the authentication functionality of an e-commerce website:

"As a logged-in user, I want to change my current password with a new one, so that I can make my account safer".

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story:

[a] After the logged-in user has successfully changed his password, an email confirming the change must be sent to him

[b] To successfully change the password, the logged-in user must enter the current password, enter a new valid password, and finally confirm by pressing the 'Change Password' button

[c] To be valid, the new password entered by the logged-in user is not only required to meet the criteria related to the length and type of characters, but must also be different form the last 5 passwords of that user

[d] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters a wrong current password

[e] A dedicated error message must be presented to the logged-in user when he enters the correct current password, but enters an invalid password

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is most likely to be written first?

Options:

A.

The logged-in user enters a wrong current password and views the dedicated error message

B.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters a valid new password (different from the last 5 passwords), presses the Change Password' button, and finally receives the e-mail confirming that the password has been successfully changed

C.

The logged-in user enters the correct current password, enters an invalid password, and finally views the dedicated error

D.

The logged-in user submits a purchase order containing ten items, selects to pay with a Visa credit card, enters credit card information of a valid card, presses the 'Confirm' button, and finally views the dedicated message confirming that the purchase has been successful

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Questions 114

Confirmation testing is performed after:

Options:

A.

a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix

B.

a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible

C.

the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

D.

a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed

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Questions 115

Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?

ISTQB-CTFL Question 115

Options:

A.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1

B.

S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3

C.

S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4

D.

S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4

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Questions 116

Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.

B.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.

C.

Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved

D.

Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.

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Questions 117

The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y

ISTQB-CTFL Question 117

A)

ISTQB-CTFL Question 117

B)

ISTQB-CTFL Question 117

C)

ISTQB-CTFL Question 117

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 118

Which of the following statements are true?

1. Early and frequent feedback helps to avoid requirements misunderstanding.

2. Early feedback allows teams to do more with less.

3. Early feedback allows the team to focus on the most Important features.

4. Early and frequent feedback clarifies customer feedback by applying static testing techniques

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Questions 119

Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.

Options:

A.

Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more

B.

Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15

C.

negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15

D.

Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15

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Questions 120

Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?

Options:

A.

Be able to apply test-driven development

B.

Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools

C.

Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible

D.

Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0)
Last Update: Nov 10, 2025
Questions: 406

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