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IT-Risk-Fundamentals IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of a risk scoping activity?

Options:

A.

Identification of major risk factors to be benchmarked against industry competitors

B.

Identification of potential high-impact risk areas throughout the enterprise

C.

Identification of risk scenarios related to emerging technologies

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Questions 5

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk for the continued existence of an enterprise?

Options:

A.

When its risk appetite and tolerance are reviewed annually

B.

When its actual risk eventually exceeds organizational risk appetite

C.

When its risk appetite and actual risk exceed its risk capacity

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Questions 6

Organizations monitor control statuses to provide assurance that:

Options:

A.

compliance with established standards is achieved.

B.

risk events are being fully mitigated.

C.

return on investment (ROI) objectives are met.

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Questions 7

A risk practitioner has been asked to prepare a risk report by the end of the day that includes an analysis of the most significant risk events facing the organization. Which of the following would BEST enable the risk practitioner to meet the report deadline?

Options:

A.

Delphi method

B.

Markov analysis

C.

Monte Carlo simulation

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Questions 8

An enterprise has moved its data center from a flood-prone area where it had experienced significant service disruptions to one that is not a flood zone. Which risk response strategy has the organization selected?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk avoidance

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Questions 9

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to include previously overlooked risk in a risk report?

Options:

A.

Assurance is needed that the risk dashboard is complete and comprehensive.

B.

Overlooked or ignored risk may become relevant in the future.

C.

The risk report must contain the current state of all risk.

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Questions 10

A business impact analysis (BIA) generates the MOST benefit when:

Options:

A.

keeping impact criteria and cost data as generic as possible.

B.

measuring existing impact criteria exclusively in financial terms.

C.

using standardized frequency and impact metrics.

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Questions 11

When defining the risk monitoring process, management should also define the:

Options:

A.

penalties for noncompliance.

B.

continuous improvement plan.

C.

exception procedures.

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Questions 12

What is the purpose of a control objective?

Options:

A.

To describe the result of protecting an asset for a business process

B.

To describe the risk of loss to an asset

C.

To describe the responsibility of stakeholders to protect assets

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Questions 13

An enterprise has performed a risk assessment for the risk associated with the theft of sales team laptops while in transit. The results of the assessment concluded that the cost of mitigating the risk is higher than the potential loss. Which of the following is the BEST risk response strategy?

Options:

A.

Limit travel with laptops.

B.

Accept the inherent risk.

C.

Encrypt the sales team laptops.

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct a cost-benefit analysis as part of a risk response business case?

Options:

A.

To determine if the reduction in risk is sufficient to justify the cost of implementing the response

B.

To determine the future resource requirements and funding needed to monitor the related risk

C.

To calculate the total return on investment (ROI) over time and benefit to enterprise risk management (ERM)

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Questions 15

Which of the following represents a vulnerability associated with legacy systems using older technology?

Options:

A.

Lost opportunity to capitalize on emerging technologies

B.

Rising costs associated with system maintenance

C.

Inability to patch or apply system updates

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Questions 16

Which of the following would have the MOST impact on the accuracy and appropriateness of plans associated with business continuity and disaster recovery?

Options:

A.

Material updates to the incident response plan

B.

Data backups being moved to the cloud

C.

Changes to the business impact assessment (BIA)

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Questions 17

One of the PRIMARY purposes of threat intelligence is to understand:

Options:

A.

zero-day threats.

B.

breach likelihood.

C.

asset vulnerabilities.

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Questions 18

Which risk response option has been adopted when an enterprise outsources disaster recovery activities to leverage the skills and expertise of a third-party provider?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk transfer

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the MOST important aspect of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

KPIs identify underperforming assets that may impact the achievement of operational goals.

B.

KPIs provide inputs for monitoring the usage of IT assets to determine return on investment (ROI).

C.

KPIs aid management in monitoring the organization's IT infrastructure capacity.

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Questions 20

As part of an I&T related risk assessment, which of the following should be reviewed to obtain an initial view of overall I&T related risk for the enterprise?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities for each risk factor identified

B.

Components of the risk register with remediation plans

C.

Components of the risk universe at a high level

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Questions 21

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason to perform a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To gain a low-cost understanding of business unit dependencies and interactions

B.

To aggregate risk in a meaningful way for a comprehensive view of enterprise risk

C.

To map the value of benefits that can be directly compared to the cost of a risk response

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Questions 22

An enterprise recently implemented multi-factor authentication. During the most recent risk assessment, it was determined that cybersecurity risk is within the organization's risk appetite threshold. What is the MOST appropriate action for the organization to take regarding the remaining cybersecurity residual risk?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Mitigate

C.

Transfer

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Questions 23

Which of the following MUST be consistent with the defined criteria when establishing the risk management context as it relates to calculation of risk?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Formulas and methods for combining impact and likelihood

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 24

Which of the following includes potential risk events and the associated impact?

Options:

A.

Risk scenario

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk profile

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Questions 25

When determining the criticality of I&T assets, it is MOST important to identify:

Options:

A.

the asset owners who are accountable for asset valuation.

B.

the business processes in which the asset is used to achieve objectives.

C.

the infrastructure in which the asset is processed and stored.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the MAIN objective of governance?

Options:

A.

Creating controls throughout the entire organization

B.

Creating risk awareness at all levels of the organization

C.

Creating value through investments for the organization

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Questions 27

Which of the following is MOST likely to expose an organization to adverse threats?

Options:

A.

Complex enterprise architecture

B.

Improperly configured network devices

C.

Incomplete cybersecurity training records

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Questions 28

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The KRIs can be added to the risk dashboard report.

B.

KRIs can be applied to multiple risk events.

C.

Each KRI is linked to a specific risk event.

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Questions 29

What is the FIRST step in the risk response process?

Options:

A.

Prioritize responses based on impact.

B.

Review risk analysis.

C.

Review risk appetite.

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Questions 30

Which of the following MUST be established in order to manage l&T-related risk throughout the enterprise?

Options:

A.

An enterprise risk governance committee

B.

The enterprise risk universe

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

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Questions 31

If the residual risk associated with a particular control is within the enterprise risk appetite, the residual risk should be:

Options:

A.

accepted and updated in the risk register.

B.

mitigated through additional controls.

C.

transferred and managed by a third party.

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Questions 32

Which of the following is important to ensure when validating the results of a frequency analysis?

Options:

A.

Estimates used during the analysis were based on reliable and historical data.

B.

The analysis was conducted by an independent third party.

C.

The analysis method has been fully documented and explained.

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Questions 33

Which types of controls are designed to avoid undesirable events, errors, and other adverse occurrences?

Options:

A.

Corrective controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Preventive controls

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Exam Name: IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam
Last Update: Feb 19, 2025
Questions: 118

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