SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2023 Questions and Answers

MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, which is a software solution that can manage and secure smartphones, laptops, tablets and other mobile devices across heterogeneous platforms. MDM can enforce security features such as encryption, password policies, remote wipe, device tracking, app control and more. MDM can also monitor and update the devices remotely and provide reports and alerts on their status. MDM is the most effective solution to implement security features across heterogeneous platforms, as it can provide centralized and consistent management of various types of devices. Verified References:

• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement secure systems design.)
• CompTIA Security+ 601 - Infosec https://www.infosecinstitute.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/03/CompTIA-Security-eBook.pdf (See Security+: 5 in-demand cybersecurity skills, Implementation)
• Certification Security+ | CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html (See Exam Objectives)

The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago would be the best option to restore the services to a secure state, as it would contain the most recent data before the ransomware infection. Incremental backups only store the changes made since the last backup, so they are faster and use less storage space than full backups. Restoring from an incremental backup would also minimize the data loss and downtime caused by the ransomware attack. References:

• https://www.comptia.org/blog/mature-cybersecurity-response-to-ransomware
• https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=HszU4nEAlFc

Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only be granted the permissions they need to do their job. This helps to protect against malware infections by preventing users from installing unauthorized software.

A host-based firewall can help to protect against malware infections by blocking malicious traffic from reaching a computer. However, it cannot prevent a user from installing malware if they have the necessary permissions.

System isolation is the practice of isolating systems from each other to prevent malware from spreading. This can be done by using virtual machines or network segmentation. However, system isolation can be complex and expensive to implement.

An application allow list is a list of applications that are allowed to run on a computer. This can help to prevent malware infections by preventing users from running unauthorized applications. However, an application allow list can be difficult to maintain and can block legitimate applications.

Therefore, the best way to protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system is to use the principle of least privilege. This will help to ensure that users only have the permissions they need to do their job, which will reduce the risk of malware infections.

Here are some additional benefits of least privilege:

• It can help to improve security by reducing the attack surface.
• It can help to simplify security management by reducing the number of permissions that need to be managed.
• It can help to improve compliance by reducing the risk of data breaches.

MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base and framework that analyzes and categorizes threat actors and real-world events based on their tactics, techniques and procedures. It can help improve the incident response team’s process by providing a common language and reference for identifying, understanding and mitigating threats

A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL certificate that can secure multiple subdomains under one domain name by using an asterisk (*) as a placeholder for any subdomain name. For example, *.company.com can secure www.company.com, contactus.company.com, quotes.company.com, etc.  It can work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com. 

laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else. It allows clients to have more control and flexibility over the configuration and management of their infrastructure resources, but also requires them to install and maintain their own operating systems, applications, etc.

A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails. References:

• https://www.ibm.com/topics/security-controls
• https://www.f5.com/labs/learning-center/what-are-security-controls

Tainted training data is a type of data poisoning attack that involves modifying or injecting malicious data into the training dataset of a machine learning or artificial intelligence system. It can cause the system to learn incorrect or biased patterns and produce inaccurate or malicious outcomes. It is the most likely reason for the inaccuracy of the system that is using information collected from third-party providers that have been compromised by an attacker.

Wireless jamming is a way for an attacker to disrupt a wireless network and create a denial of ser-vice situation by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio at the receiving device. The attacker would need to be relatively close to the wireless network to overwhelm the good signal. The other options are not likely to cause a wireless network outage for users near the parking lot.

Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.

A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control
• https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-controls/

Virtual machines are software-based simulations of physical computers that run on a host system and share its resources. They can provide resiliency for legacy information systems that cannot be migrated to a newer OS due to software compatibility issues by allowing OS patches to be installed in a non-production environment without affecting the production environment. They can also create backups of the systems for recovery by taking snapshots or copies of the virtual machine files.

Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.

Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.

Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:

• https://www.security.org/antivirus/computer-worm/
• https://sec.cloudapps.cisco.com/security/center/resources/worm_mitigation_whitepaper.html

A legal hold is a process that requires an organization to preserve electronically stored information and paper documents that are relevant to a pending or anticipated litigation or investigation. It suspends the normal retention and destruction policies and procedures for such information and documents until the legal hold is lifted or released. 

The router is experiencing a resource exhaustion issue. The output from the command indicates that the CPU is consistently busy, with a 1-second average of 99 percent busy and a 1-minute average of 83 percent busy. This indicates that the router is struggling to keep up with the demands placed on it, potentially due to a high volume of traffic or other factors. As a result, web pages are experiencing long load times. This is an example of resource exhaustion, where the router's resources are being overwhelmed and are unable to meet the demands placed on them. A DDoS attack, memory leak, or buffer overflow would not typically cause the symptoms described in the scenario.

Off-site replication is a process of copying and storing data in a remote location that is geographically separate from the primary site. It can ensure minimal downtime for organizations with critical computing equipment located in earthquake-prone areas by providing a backup copy of data that can be accessed and restored in case of a disaster or disruption at the primary site.

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a technology that can monitor, detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can be implemented on endpoints, networks, servers or cloud services to protect data in motion, in use or at rest. DLP can also block or alert on data transfers that violate predefined policies or rules. DLP is the best tool to assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII, as it can scan the email content and attachments for any data that matches the criteria of PII and prevent the email from being sent or notify the administrator of the incident. Verified References:

• Data Loss Prevention Guide to Blocking Leaks - CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/data-loss-prevention-a-step-by-step-guide-to-blocking-leaks
• Data Loss Prevention – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-loss-prevention-4/
• Data Loss Prevention – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/data-loss-prevention-3/

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards and requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit payment card data. It aims to protect cardholder data and prevent fraud and data breaches. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a regulation that governs the collection, processing, and transfer of personal data of individuals in the European Union. It aims to protect the privacy and rights of data subjects and impose obligations and penalties on data controllers and processors. These are the frameworks that the security officer should map the existing controls to, as they are relevant for a credit card transaction company that has a new office in Europe

Spraying is a password attack that involves trying a few common passwords against a large number of usernames. Spraying is different from brute-force attacks, which try many possible passwords against one username, or dictionary attacks, which try a list of words from a dictionary file against one username. Spraying is often used when the web application has a lockout policy that prevents multiple failed login attempts for the same username. Spraying can be detected by looking for patterns of failed login attempts from the same source IP address with different usernames and the same or similar passwords.

NAT (Network Address Translation) is a technique that allows a router to translate private IP addresses into public IP addresses and vice versa. It can preserve the use of public IP addresses assigned to equipment on the core router by allowing multiple devices to share a single public IP address. TLSv2 (Transport Layer Security version 2) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can enable “in transport” encryption protection to the web server with the strongest ciphers by encrypting the data transmitted between the web server and the clients using advanced algorithms and key exchange methods.

Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the demand for a service or product. It involves estimating the number of staff members required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, as well as other factors such as equipment, space, and budget12.

Redundancy, geographic dispersion, and tabletop exercise are not directly related to determining the staff members needed for business continuity. Redundancy is the duplication of critical components or functions to increase reliability and availability2. Geographic dispersion is the distribution of resources across different locations to reduce the impact of a localized disaster2. Tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential scenario that tests the effectiveness of a business continuity plan

Directory traversal is a type of web application attack that involves exploiting a vulnerability in the web server or application to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope or root directory. It can allow an attacker to read, modify, or execute files on the target system by using special characters such as …/ or %2e%2e/ to manipulate the path or URL. In this case, the attacker used …/ to access the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information on Linux systems. 

Time-based one-time password (TOTP) and hardware token are authentication methods that rely on the possession factor, which means that the user must have a specific device or object in their possession to authenticate. A TOTP is a password that is valid for a short period of time and is generated by an app or a device that the user has. A hardware token is a physical device that displays a code or a password that the user can enter to authenticate. A passphrase (Option A) is a knowledge factor, while facial recognition (Option C), retina scan (Option D), and fingerprints (Option F) are all inherence factors.

https://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/imprint_downloads/pearsonitcertification/bookreg/9780136798675/9780136798675_tea rcard.pdf

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg

Wireshark is a tool that can analyze pcap files, which are files that capture network traffic. Wireshark can display the packets, protocols, and other details of the network traffic in a graphical user interface. Nmap is a tool that can scan networks and hosts for open ports and services. CURL is a tool that can transfer data from or to a server using various protocols. Neat is a tool that can test network performance and quality.

SSH key is a pair of cryptographic keys that can be used for authentication and encryption when connecting to a remote Linux server via SSH protocol. SSH key authentication does not require a password and is more secure than password-based authentication. SSH key authentication also does not require additional software installation on the client or the server, as SSH is a built-in feature of most Linux distributions. A business partner can generate an SSH key pair on their own computer and send the public key to the company, who can then add it to the authorized_keys file on the Linux server. This way, the business partner can access the Linux server without entering a password or installing any software

A zero-day vulnerability is a security flaw that is unknown to the vendor and the public, and therefore has no patch or fix available. A zero-day attack is an exploit that takes advantage of a zero-day vulnerability before the vendor or the security community becomes aware of it. A zero-day attack can cause serious damage to a system or network, as there is no defense against it until a patch is released. References:

• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/zero-days-and-the-advanced-persistent-threat
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/zero-day-attacks-4/

A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through

 VPN (Virtual Private Network) traffic is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity over the internet. However, this also means that it cannot be inspected by security devices or tools when entering or leaving the network, unless it is decrypted first. This can create a blind spot or a vulnerability for the network security posture, as malicious traffic or data could bypass detection or prevention mechanisms by using VPN encryption

A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an attacker sends more data than a buffer can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations such as registers. It can allow an attacker to overwrite a register with a malicious address that changes the execution path and executes arbitrary code on the target system

HSM stands for hardware security module, which is a physical device that is used to store and manage cryptographic keys in a secure and tamper-resistant manner. HSMs can provide high-performance encryption and decryption operations, as well as key generation, backup, and recovery. HSMs can also prevent unauthorized access or extraction of the keys, even by the cloud service provider or the HSM vendor. HSMs can enhance the protection of a critical environment that is used to store and manage encryption keys for a financial institution or any other organization that deals with sensitive data. References:

• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security
• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/hardware-security-3/

Availability zones are the most appropriate cloud feature to address the concern of resiliency in case a cloud provider’s data center or network connection goes down. Availability zones are physically separate locations within an Azure region that have independent power, cooling, and networking. Each availability zone is made up of one or more data centers and houses infrastructure to support highly available, mission-critical applications. Availability zones are connected with high-speed, private fiber-optic networks. Azure services that support availability zones fall into two categories: Zonal services – you pin the resource to a specific zone (for example, virtual machines, managed disks, IP addresses), or Zone-redundant services – platform replicates automatically across zones (for example, zone-redundant storage, SQL Database). To achieve comprehensive business continuity on Azure, build your application architecture using the combination of availability zones with Azure region pairs. You can synchronously replicate your applications and data using availability zones within an Azure region for high-availability and asynchronously replicate across Azure regions for disaster recovery protection.

A false positive is a type of alert that indicates a security incident when there is none. It can be caused by misconfigured or overly sensitive security tools or systems that generate false or irrelevant alerts. In this case, the alert from the company’s SIEM that Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems was a false positive because it was triggered by a legitimate vulnerability scanning tool that uses Mimikatz as part of its functionality.

Surveillance systems are constantly scanned by internet bots and have the highest risk of attack in the case of the default configurations because they are often connected to the internet and use weak or default passwords that can be easily guessed or cracked by malicious bots. Internet bots are software applications that run automated tasks over the internet, usually with the intent to imitate human activity or exploit vulnerabilities. Some bots are used for legitimate purposes, such as web crawling or indexing, but others are used for malicious purposes, such as spamming, phishing, denial-of-service attacks, or credential stuffing. Security misconfigurations are one of the most common gaps that criminal hackers look to exploit. Therefore, it is important to secure the configuration of surveillance systems by changing the default passwords, updating the firmware, disabling unnecessary services, and enabling encryption and authentication.

https://www.cctvcameraworld.com/setup-ip-camera-sys tem-on-network/

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc. 

A right-to-audit clause is a contractual provision that allows one party to audit the records and activities of another party to ensure compliance with security policies and standards. It can help a company monitor the ongoing security maturity of a new vendor by conducting annual security audits and identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed.

QUESTIO NO: 399

An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

A. Reimage the impacted workstations.

B. Activate runbooks for incident response.

C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,

D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.

A business continuity plan is a document or a process that outlines how an organization can continue its critical operations and functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. It can include strategies and procedures for recovering or relocating resources, personnel, data, etc., to ensure minimal downtime and impact. The organization will most likely consult the business continuity plan when setting up offices in a temporary work space after its corporate offices were destroyed due to a natural disaster.

A single point of failure is a component or element of a system that, if it fails, will cause the entire system to fail or stop functioning. It can pose a high risk and impact for business continuity and availability. A high availability pair is a configuration that involves two identical devices or systems that operate in parallel and provide redundancy and failover capabilities. It can remove the single point of failure by ensuring that if one device or system fails, the other one can take over its functions without interruption or downtime. 

GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations. References:

• https://www.gdpreu.org/the-regulation/key-concepts/personal-data/
• https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations-2/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regulation-gdpr/key-definitions/what-is-personal-data/

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated with medium confidence

Credentials are sent in cleartext is the greatest risk associated with using FTP. FTP is an old protocol that does not encrypt the data or the credentials that are transmitted over the network. This means that anyone who can capture the network traffic can see the usernames and passwords of the FTP users, as well as the files they are transferring. This can lead to data breaches, identity theft, and unauthorized access. Private data can be leaked (Option A) is a possible consequence of using FTP, but not the root cause of the risk. FTP is prohibited by internal policy (Option B) is a compliance issue, but not a technical risk. Users can upload personal files (Option C) is a management issue, but not a security risk

https://www.infosectrain.com/blog/comptia-security-sy0-601-domain-5-governance-risk-and-compliance/

VDI and thin clients are the best solution to deploy to conference rooms for displaying sensitive data on large screens. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that hosts the desktop operating systems and applications on a central server or cloud and allows users to access them remotely. Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a network connection to the VDI system. By using VDI and thin clients, the security architect can ensure that the sensitive data is not stored in the conference rooms, but rather in a secure data center or cloud. The thin clients can also be easily managed and updated centrally, reducing the maintenance costs and risks. References:

• https://www.acecloudhosting.com/blog/what-is-vdi-thin-client/
• https://www.parallels.com/blogs/ras/vdi-thin-client/

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.

SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems. 

MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more factors or attributes that belong to different categories. The categories are something you know (such as a password or a PIN), something you have (such as a token or a smart card), something you are (such as a fingerprint or an iris scan), something you do (such as a gesture or a voice command), and somewhere you are (such as a location or an IP address). In this case, the user enters a password (something you know) and then receives an authentication code (something you have) to log in to a workstation.

Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution. 

A SHA 2 signature is a cryptographic hash function that produces a unique and fixed-length output for any given input. It can provide non-repudiation during a forensics investigation by verifying the integrity and authenticity of a drive image and proving that it has not been altered or tampered with since it was created

 Integrity is a security concept that ensures that data is accurate, complete and consistent, and that it has not been tampered with or modified in an unauthorized or unintended way. Integrity is important for e-commerce organizations to protect against erroneous purchases, as it can prevent data corruption, duplication, loss or manipulation that could affect the transactions or the records of the customers. Integrity can be achieved by using methods such as hashing, digital signatures, checksums, encryption and access control. Verified References:

• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See What Skills Will You Learn?)
• CompTIA Security+ 601 - Infosec https://www.infosecinstitute.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/03/CompTIA-Security-eBook.pdf (See Security+: 5 in-demand cybersecurity skills)
• CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide (See Chapter 1: Threats, Attacks and Vulnerabilities, Section 1.4: Cryptography and PKI)

A risk register is a document or a tool that records and tracks information about the identified risks and their analysis, such as likelihood, impact, priority, mitigation strategies, residual risks, etc. It can contain ranked and ordered information on the likelihood and potential impact of catastrophic events that may affect business processes and systems, while also highlighting the residual risks that need to be managed after mitigating controls have been implemented.

Mobile device management (MDM) is a solution that allows an organization to manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices that are used by employees for work purposes. It can protect company information on user devices by enforcing policies and controls such as encryption, password, remote wipe, etc., and detecting and preventing unauthorized access or data leakage.

An internet proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a client and a destination server on the internet. It can restrict web access and monitor the websites that employees visit by filtering the requests and responses based on predefined rules and policies, and logging the traffic and activities for auditing purposes

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc

Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privilege-escalation-3/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-2-secure-code-design-and-implementation/privilege-escalation

The most likely cause of the enterprise data being compromised from a local database is Shadow IT. Shadow IT is the use of unauthorized applications or devices by employees to access company resources. In this case, the sales director's laptop was stolen, and the attacker was able to use it to access the local database, which was not secured properly, allowing unauthorized access to sensitive data. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

Based on these definitions, the best security solution to mitigate the risk of future data disclosures from a laptop would be FDE123. FDE would prevent unauthorized access to the data stored on the laptop even if it is stolen or lost. FDE can also use TPM to store the encryption key and ensure that only trusted software can decrypt the data3. HIDS and VPN are not directly related to data encryption, but they can provide additional security benefits by detecting intrusions and protecting network traffic respectively.

Crosscut shredders are used to destroy paper documents and reduce the risk of data leakage through dumpster diving. Dumpster diving is a method of retrieving sensitive information from paper waste by searching through discarded documents.

References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2

Enforcing the use of a controlled trusted source of container images is the best solution to prevent incidents like the introduction of a zero-day vulnerability through container images from occurring again. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 11: Cloud Security, Container Security

"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112

To understand the threat and retrieve possible Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) from a phishing email containing a malicious document, a security analyst should install a sandbox to run the malicious payload in a safe environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 2.5 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack. Study Guide: Chapter 5, page 209.

User behavior analytics (UBA) would be the best data source to assess the accounts impacted by the attack, as it can identify abnormal activity, such as repeated brute-force attacks and logins from unfamiliar geographic locations, and provide insights into the behavior of the impacted accounts. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7: Incident Response, pp. 338-341

A bug bounty is a technique that compensates researchers for finding vulnerabilities in software or systems. A bug bounty program is an initiative that offers rewards, usually monetary, to ethical hackers who report security flaws to the owners or developers of the software or system. Bug bounty programs are often used by companies such as Meta (formerly Facebook), Google, Microsoft, and others to improve the security of their products and services

Bug bounty programs compensate researchers, often financially, for finding vulnerabilities in software, websites, or other technology. These programs provide an additional layer of security testing and incentivize researchers to report vulnerabilities instead of exploiting them.

The Diamond Model is a framework for analyzing cyber threats that focuses on four key elements: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. By analyzing these elements, security researchers can gain a better understanding of the threat landscape and develop more effective security strategies.

The chmod command is used to change the permissions of a file or directory. The analyst can use chmod to reduce the permissions for existing users and groups and remove the set-user-ID bit from the file. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 6

SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a type of audit report that evaluates the controls of service providers to verify their compliance with industry standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A Type 2 report is based on an audit that tests the effectiveness of the controls over a period of time, unlike a Type 1 report which only evaluates the design of the controls at a specific point in time.

A SOC 2 Type 2 report would provide evidence of the vendor's security controls and how effective they are over time, which can help the security manager assess the vendor's security posture despite the vendor not allowing for a direct audit.

The security manager should request a SOC 2 Type 2 report to assess the security posture of the vendor. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

WAP stands for wireless access point, which is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. WAP placement refers to where and how WAPs are installed in a building or area.

WAP placement should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments because it affects several aspects of network performance and security, such as:

• Coverage: WAP placement determines how well wireless devices can access the network throughout the building or area. WAPs should be placed in locations that provide optimal signal strength and avoid interference from other sources.
• Capacity: WAP placement determines how many wireless devices can connect to the network simultaneously without affecting network speed or quality. WAPs should be placed in locations that balance network load and avoid congestion or bottlenecks.
• Security: WAP placement determines how vulnerable wireless devices are to eavesdropping or hacking attacks from outside or inside sources. WAPs should be placed in locations that minimize exposure to unauthorized access and maximize encryption and authentication methods.

NIST 800-53 provides a catalog of security and privacy controls related to the United States federal information systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, pp. 123-125

laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) allows the creation of virtual networks, automation, and scripting to reduce the area utilized in a datacenter. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

An incident response plan is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines how an organization should respond to a security incident. An incident response plan typically includes the following phases: preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.

If the help desk has received calls from users in multiple locations who are unable to access core network services, it could indicate that a network outage or a denial-of-service attack has occurred. The network team has identified and turned off the network switches using remote commands, which could be a containment measure to isolate the affected devices and prevent further damage.

The next action that the network team should take is to initiate the organization’s incident response plan, which would involve notifying the appropriate stakeholders, such as management, security team, legal team, etc., and following the predefined steps to investigate, analyze, document, and resolve the incident.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. Disconnect all external network connections from the firewall. This could be another containment measure to prevent external attackers from accessing the network, but it would also disrupt legitimate network traffic and services. This action should be taken only if it is part of the incident response plan and after notifying the relevant parties.
• B. Send response teams to the network switch locations to perform updates. This could be a recovery measure to restore normal network operations and apply patches or updates to prevent future incidents, but it should be done only after the incident has been properly identified, contained, and eradicated.
• C. Turn on all the network switches by using the centralized management software. This could be a recovery measure to restore normal network operations, but it should be done only after the incident has been properly identified, contained, and eradicated.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.5 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware:

“An incident response plan is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines how an organization should respond to a security incident. An incident response plan typically includes the following phases: preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives

A development environment is the environment that is used to develop and test software. It is typically installed locally on a system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build. In this environment, dummy data is often utilized to test the software's functionality.

Time-based One-Time Password (TOTP) is a type of authentication method that sends out a unique password to be used within a specific number of seconds. It uses a combination of a shared secret key and the current time to generate a one-time password. TOTP is commonly used for two-factor authentication (2FA) to provide an additional layer of security beyond just a username and password.

A WAF (Web Application Firewall) and NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) are both examples of Layer 7 security controls. A WAF can block attacks at the application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model by filtering traffic to and from a web server. NIDS can also detect attacks at Layer 7 by monitoring network traffic for suspicious patterns and behaviors. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 94-95, 116-118

The attackers are using card skimming to steal shoppers' credit card information, which they use to make online purchases. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

Vishing is a social engineering attack that uses phone calls or voicemail messages to trick people into divulging sensitive information, such as financial information or login credentials.

The issue is DNS spoofing, where the DNS resolution has been compromised and is pointing to a malicious IP address. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7

The scenario of receiving an email stating a database will be encrypted unless a payment is made is an example of spear phishing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 2: Threats, Attacks, and Vulnerabilities, Social Engineering

A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.

If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.

The other options are not correct because:

• B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports. This could be a possibility, but it is less likely than option A. An adversary would need to have access to the vulnerability scan reports and be able to modify them without being detected. Moreover, altering the reports would not prevent the patch from being applied or uninstalled.
• C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server. This is not correct because a zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the public or the vendor, and therefore has no patch available. The question states that a patch is available for the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server.
• D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability. This is not correct because a false negative is when a scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is present. The question states that the vulnerability is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, which means that it was detected by previous scans.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:

“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/

A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.

High availability refers to the ability of a system or service to remain operational and available to users with minimal downtime. By ensuring high availability, the company can maintain good performance and ensure that users have access to the network services they need. High availability can also improve security, as it helps to prevent disruptions that could potentially be caused by security incidents or other issues.

After segmenting the network, a network manager can use an access control list (ACL) to control the traffic between the segments. An ACL is a set of rules that permit or deny traffic based on its characteristics, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2

Data loss prevention (DLP) solutions can prevent the accidental or intentional loss of sensitive data. DLP tools can identify and protect sensitive data by classifying and categorizing it, encrypting it, or blocking it from being transferred outside the organization's network.

Privileged scanning, also known as credentialed scanning, is a type of vulnerability scanning that uses a valid user account to log in to the target host and examine vulnerabilities from a trusted user’s perspective. It can provide more accurate and comprehensive results than unprivileged scanning, which does not use any credentials and only scans for externally visible vulnerabilities.

The security analyst is likely observing a Telnet session, as Telnet transmits data in plain text format, including usernames and passwords. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware.

A biometric scanner uses physical characteristics such as fingerprints to identify an individual user. It is used to ensure that only the authorized user is present when gaining access to a secured area.

Based on the given information, the most likely type of malware infecting the hosts is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan). RATs are often used for stealthy unauthorized access to a victim's computer, and they can evade traditional antivirus software through various sophisticated techniques. In particular, the fact that the malware is communicating with external IP addresses during specific hours suggests that it may be under the control of an attacker who is issuing commands from a remote location. Ransomware, polymorphic malware, and worms are also possible culprits, but the context of the question suggests that a RAT is the most likely answer. 

Detailed Explanation: The attack being attempted is directory traversal, which is a web application attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories outside of the web root directory. A WAF can help mitigate this attack by detecting and blocking attempts to access files outside of the web root directory.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4: Securing Application Development and Deployment, p. 191

A jump server is a secure host that allows users to access other servers within a network. The jump server acts as an intermediary, and users can access other servers via the jump server after authenticating with MFA.

The CISO is using the NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) to evaluate the environment for the new ERP system. The RMF is a structured process for managing risks that involves categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Management, pp. 188-191.

 Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that uses fraudulent emails or other forms of communication to trick users into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or personal details. Phishing emails often impersonate legitimate entities, such as banks, online services, or lottery organizations, and entice users to click on malicious links or attachments that lead to fake websites or malware downloads. Phishing emails usually target a large number of users indiscriminately, hoping that some of them will fall for the scam.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-phishing

a backup strategy is a plan that defines how to protect data from loss or corruption by creating and storing copies of data on a different medium or location1. A backup strategy should consider the security and reliability of the backup data and the backup storage234.

Based on these definitions, the best option that is a cost-effective approach to address the security and reliability concerns regarding the on-site backup strategy would be D. Migrate to a cloud backup solution24. A cloud backup solution can provide several benefits, such as:

• Enhanced physical security of the backup data by storing it in a remote location that is protected by multiple layers of security measures.
• Enhanced durability of the backup data by storing it on highly reliable storage devices that are replicated across multiple availability zones or regions.
• Reduced costs of backup storage by paying only for the amount of data stored and transferred, and by using features such as compression, deduplication, encryption, and lifecycle management.
• Increased flexibility and scalability of backup storage by choosing from various storage classes and tiers that match the performance and availability requirements of the backup data.

The responsibilities of ensuring backups are properly maintained and implementing technical controls to protect data are the responsibilities of the data custodian role. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 7: Securing Hosts and Data, Data Custodian

Detailed Explanation: Password spraying is an attack where an attacker tries a small number of commonly used passwords against a large number of usernames. The goal of password spraying is to avoid detection by avoiding too many failed login attempts for any one user account. The fact that different usernames are being attacked from the same IP address is a strong indication that a password spraying attack is underway.

When allowing mobile BYOD devices to access network resources, using a captive portal for user authentication and authenticating users using OAuth are both best practices for authentication and infrastructure security. A captive portal requires users to authenticate before accessing the network and can be used to enforce policies and restrictions. OAuth allows users to authenticate using third-party providers, reducing the risk of password reuse and credential theft. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 217-218, 225-226

Bug bounty is a type of testing in which an organization offers a reward or compensation to anyone who can identify vulnerabilities or security flaws in their network or applications. The outside security firm has agreed to pay for each vulnerability found, which is an example of a bug bounty program.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a maintenance metric that measures the average time required to troubleshoot and restore failed equipment. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 4.6 Explain the importance of secure coding practices. Study Guide: Chapter 7, page 323.

An uncredentialed scan would miss missing patches for third-party software on Windows workstations and servers. A credentialed scan, however, can scan the registry and file system to determine the patch level of third-party applications. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 4: Identity and Access Management, The Importance of Credentialing Scans

The company should implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) to prevent employees from stealing data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8

Single-key or symmetric-key encryption algorithms create a fixed length of bits known as a block cipher with a secret key that the creator/sender uses to encipher data (encryption) and the receiver uses to decipher it.

The company should implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) to prevent employees from stealing data when accessing network shares. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8

Detailed Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can help prevent employees from stealing data by monitoring and controlling access to sensitive data. DLP can also detect and block attempts to transfer sensitive data outside of the organization, such as via email, file transfer, or cloud storage.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 10: Managing Identity and Access, p. 465

A - a mantrap can trap those personnal with bad intension(preventive), and kind of same as detecting, since you will know if someone is trapped there(detective), and it can deter those personnal from approaching as well(deterrent) B - security guards can sure do the same thing as above, preventing malicious personnal from entering(preventive+deterrent), and notice those personnal as well(detective)

Single Sign-On (SSO) is a mechanism that allows users to access multiple applications with a single set of login credentials. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 6

TACACS+ is a protocol used for remote authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) that can be used to replace shared passwords on routers and switches. It provides a more secure method of authentication that allows for centralized management of access control policies. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 6

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes security-related data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 5

The “From” line in the email header can be easily spoofed or manipulated by an attacker to make it look like the email is coming from the CIO’s email address. However, this does not mean that the email address is actually valid or that the email is actually sent by the CIO. A better way to check the email address is to hover over it and see if it matches the CIO’s email address exactly. This can help to spot any discrepancies or typos that might indicate a phishing attempt. For example, if the CIO’s email address is cio@company.com, but when you hover over it, it shows cio@compnay.com, then you know that the email is not authentic and likely a phishing attempt.

The attack described in the question is known as a DNS hijacking attack. In this type of attack, an attacker modifies the DNS records of a domain name to redirect traffic to their own server. This allows them to intercept traffic and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.

To prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future, the company should implement C. DNSSEC.

DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is a security protocol that adds digital signatures to DNS records. This ensures that DNS records are not modified during transit and prevents DNS hijacking attacks.

The most likely cause of the document-scanning software program not responding when launched by the end user is that the software was not added to the application whitelist. An application whitelist is a list of approved software applications that are allowed to run on a system. If the software is not on the whitelist, it may be blocked from running by the system's security policies. Adding the software to the whitelist should resolve the issue and allow the program to run. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31541/application-whitelisting

The attack being conducted is an Evil twin attack. An Evil twin attack involves creating a rogue wireless access point (WAP) with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as a legitimate WAP to trick users into connecting to it. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic or steal login credentials. The successful login attempts with impossible travel times suggest that an attacker is using a stolen or compromised credential to access the external site to which the sensitive data is being downloaded. The non-standard DHCP configurations and overlapping channels of the WAPs suggest that the attacker is using a rogue WAP to intercept traffic. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.4 Compare and contrast types of attacks, p. 8

Multiple alerts were generated on the SIEM during the emergency maintenance activity due to unexpected traffic correlated against multiple rules. The SIEM generates alerts when it detects an event that matches a rule in its rulebase. If the event matches multiple rules, the SIEM will generate multiple alerts.

Smishing is a type of phishing attack which begins with an attacker sending a text message to an individual. The message contains social engineering tactics to convince the person to click on a malicious link or send sensitive information to the attacker. Criminals use smishing attacks for purposes like:

Learn login credentials to accounts via credential phishing

Discover private data like social security numbers

Send money to the attacker

Install malware on a phone

Establish trust before using other forms of contact like phone calls or emails

Attackers may pose as trusted sources like a government organization, a person you know, or your bank. And messages often come with manufactured urgency and time-sensitive threats. This can make it more difficult for a victim to notice a scam.

Phone numbers are easy to spoof with VoIP texting, where users can create a virtual number to send and receive texts. If a certain phone number is flagged for spam, criminals can simply recycle it and use a new one.

Trusted Automated Exchange of Intelligence Information (TAXII) is a standard protocol that enables the sharing of cyber threat intelligence between organizations. It allows organizations to automate the exchange of information in a secure and timely manner. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - 3.6 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. Study Guide: Chapter 4, page 167.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) can be used to monitor and control access to cloud-based applications, including unsanctioned SaaS applications. It can help enforce policies that prevent access to high-risk SaaS applications and provide visibility into the use of such applications by employees. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.3 Given a scenario, implement secure mobile solutions.

The environment that utilizes dummy data and is most likely to be installed locally on a system that allows it to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build is the development environment. The development environment is used for developing and testing software and applications. It is typically installed on a local system, rather than on a remote server, to allow for easy access and modification. Dummy data can be used in the development environment to simulate real-world scenarios and test the software's functionality. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/27561/development-environment

Geofencing is a technology used in mobile device management (MDM) to allow administrators to define geographical boundaries within which mobile devices can operate. This can be used to enforce location-based policies, such as ensuring that devices can be tracked and wiped if lost or stolen. Additionally, encryption can be enforced on the devices to ensure the protection of sensitive data in the event of theft or loss. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a technology used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network. DLP solutions can prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers, by monitoring data in motion.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 99-102.

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:

• https://www.keycloak.org/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

Containment is the next step according to the incident response process after identifying affected devices that are running a malicious application with a unique hash. Containment involves isolating the compromised devices or systems from the rest of the network to prevent the spread of the attack and limit its impact. Containment can be done by disconnecting the devices from the network, blocking network traffic to or from them, or applying firewall rules or access control lists. Containment is a critical step in incident response because it helps to preserve evidence for further analysis and remediation, and reduces the risk of data loss or exfiltration

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/incident-response

https://www.ibm.com/topics/incident-response

Pseudo-anonymization is a technique of replacing sensitive data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms that preserve some characteristics or attributes of the original data. It can protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information by removing direct identifiers such as names, addresses, etc., but retaining indirect identifiers such as job roles, pay scales, etc., that are relevant for the comparison.

Lighting and fencing are physical security countermeasures that can deter or stop intruders from accessing a facility or an asset. Lighting can increase visibility and reduce hiding spots for intruders, while fencing can create a physical barrier and limit access points for intruders.

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is the best solution to implement on the company’s network to detect and prevent suspicious attempts to access company resources. An IPS is a network security technology that continuously monitors network traffic for malicious or anomalous activity and takes automated actions to block or mitigate it. An IPS can also alert the system administrators of any potential threats and provide detailed logs and reports of the incidents. An IPS can help the company to improve its security posture and prevent data breaches, unauthorized access, or denial-of-service attacks. References:

• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-an-intrusion-prevention-system-ips
• https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/intrusion-prevention-system-ips

Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image is a way to supply non-repudiation during a forensics investigation, as it can verify the integrity and authenticity of the data captured in the image. SHA-2 is a family of secure hash algorithms that can produce a unique and fixed-length digest of any input data. By hashing the drive image and comparing the signature with the original hash, the investigator can prove that the image has not been altered or tampered with since the time of acquisition. This can also help to identify the source of the data and prevent any denial from the suspect. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/managing-evidence/
• https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-security-incident-response-digital-forensics-supporting-investigations-f889a108-9721-4e2c-8e9e-b49b01295e48

Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network would prevent the issue of making several company servers unreachable. A non-production environment is a replica of the production network that is used for testing, development, or training purposes. By testing the policy in a non-production environment, the technician can verify the functionality and impact of the policy without affecting the real network or users. This can help to identify and resolve any errors or conflicts before applying the policy to the production network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment can also help to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) device is a battery backup system that can provide consistent power levels in case of brownouts or voltage spikes. It can also provide a minimum of 30 minutes runtime following a power outage, depending on the size and load of the device. A network-connected UPS device can also communicate with critical systems and trigger graceful shutdowns if the battery level is low or the power is not restored. 

Password history is a policy that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords. This can reduce the risk of password cracking or compromise. Geolocation is a policy that restricts users from logging in from certain locations based on their IP address. This can prevent unauthorized access from high-risk countries or regions. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-identity-and-access-management

A jump server is a system that is used to manage and access systems in a separate security zone. It acts as a bridge between two different security zones and provides a controlled and secure way of accessing systems between them12. A jump server can also be used for auditing traffic and user activity for real-time surveillance3. By deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network, the security analyst can securely meet the remote connectivity requirements for the servers and cameras without exposing them directly to the internet or allowing outgoing traffic from their subnet. The other options are not suitable because:

• A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on would not allow remote maintenance via the company VPN.
• C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering would not prevent direct internet access to the cameras or servers.
• D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server would not address the remote connectivity requirements or protect the servers from internet access.

References:

1: https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/network-security/what-is-a-jump-server/  3: https://www.ssh.com/academy/iam/jump-server  2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server

shadow IT is the use of IT-related hardware or software by a department or individual without the knowledge or approval of the IT or security group within the organization12. Shadow IT can encompass cloud services, software, and hardware. The main area of concern today is the rapid adoption of cloud-based services1.

According to one source3, shadow IT helps you know and identify which apps are being used and what your risk level is. 80% of employees use non-sanctioned apps that no one has reviewed, and may not be compliant with your security and compliance policies.

A supply chain attack is a type of attack that involves compromising a trusted third-party provider or vendor and using their products or services to deliver malware or gain access to the target organization. The attacker can exploit the trust and dependency that the organization has on the provider or vendor and bypass their security controls. In this case, the attacker may have tampered with the patch for the security appliance and used it to exfiltrate data from the organization.

A vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan devices and systems for known vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and compliance issues. By loading the current baselines into the scanner, the organization can compare the actual state of the new laptops with the desired state and identify any deviations or weaknesses. This is a quick and automated way to assess the hardening of the new laptops.

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a protocol that is used to encrypt data sent over HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure). In order for an intrusion detection system (IDS) and a web application firewall (WAF) to be effective on HTTPS traffic, they must be able to inspect the encrypted traffic. TLS inspection allows the IDS and WAF to decrypt and inspect the traffic, allowing them to detect any malicious activity. References: [1] CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601 [1], Sixth Edition, Chapter 11, "Network Security Monitoring" [2] CompTIA Security+ Get Certified Get Ahead: SY0-501 Study Guide, Chapter 7, "Intrusion Detection and Prevention"

An authorized hacker, also known as an ethical hacker or a white hat hacker, is someone who uses their skills and knowledge to find and report security issues in a system or application with the permission of the owner. An authorized hacker follows the rules and guidelines of the bug bounty program and does not cause any harm or damage to the system or its users.

A log collector is a component that forwards the logs from all security devices to a central source. A log collector can be a software tool or a hardware appliance that collects logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, applications, or endpoints. A log collector can also perform functions such as log filtering, parsing, aggregation, normalization, and enrichment. A log collector can help centralize logging by sending the collected logs to a central log server or a security information and event management (SIEM) system for further analysis and correlation.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://geekflare.com/open-source-centralized-logging/

AUP or Acceptable Use Policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using a company’s IT resources, such as devices, networks, internet, email, etc. It usually includes language prohibiting end users from accessing personal email from a company device, as well as other activities that may compromise security or productivity1.

https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/governance-risk-and-compliance/what-are-sla-mou-bpa-and-nda/  3: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/agreement-types/  1: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2471/acceptable-use-policy-aup

Input validation is a technique that involves checking the user input for any malicious or unexpected characters or commands that could be used to perform SQL injection attacks. Input validation can be done by using allow-lists or deny-lists to filter out the input based on predefined criteria. Input validation can prevent SQL injection attacks by ensuring that only valid and expected input is passed to the database queries.

Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated

This option is the most likely reason for preventing the IT manager at the hospital from upgrading the specialized OS. The MRI scanner is a complex and sensitive device that requires a specific OS to control and operate it. The MRI vendor may not have developed or tested newer versions of the OS for compatibility and functionality with the scanner. Upgrading the OS without the vendor’s support may cause the scanner to malfunction or stop working altogether.

An on-path attack is a type of attack where an attacker places themselves between two devices (such as a workstation and a server) and intercepts or modifies the communications between them. An on-path attacker can collect sensitive information, impersonate either device, or disrupt the service. In this scenario, the attacker is likely using an on-path attack to capture and alter the network traffic between the workstation and the server, causing service disruptions and data leakage.

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a solution that can collect, correlate, and analyze security logs and events from various devices on a network. SIEM can provide better visibility into user activities by generating reports, alerts, dashboards, and metrics. SIEM can also help detect and respond to security incidents, comply with regulations, and improve security posture.

Key exchange Short Explanation: Key exchange is the process of securely sharing cryptographic keys between two parties over a public network. This allows them to establish a secure communication channel and encrypt their messages. There are different methods of key exchange, such as Diffie-Hellman or RSA. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-encryption

Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

SaaS stands for software as a service, which is a cloud computing model that provides ready-to-use applications over the internet. SaaS applications are hosted and managed by a cloud provider who also handles software updates, maintenance, security, and scalability. SaaS users can access the applications through a web browser or a mobile app without installing any software on their devices. SaaS applications are typically offered on a subscription or pay-per-use basis. Examples of SaaS applications include email services, online office suites, customer relationship management (CRM) systems, and video conferencing platforms.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/software-as-a-service

Privilege creep is the gradual accumulation of access rights beyond what an individual needs to do his or her job. In information technology, a privilege is an identified right that a particular end user has to a particular system resource, such as a file folder or virtual machine. Privilege creep often occurs when an employee changes job responsibilities within an organization and is granted new privileges. While employees may need to retain their former privileges during a period of transition, those privileges are rarely revoked and result in an unnecessary accumulation of access privileges. Privilege creep creates a security risk by increasing the attack surface and exposing sensitive data or systems to unauthorized or malicious users.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/privilege-creep

AUP stands for acceptable use policy, which is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using an organization’s network, systems, devices, and resources. An AUP typically covers topics such as authorized and unauthorized activities, security requirements, data protection, user responsibilities, and consequences for violations. An AUP can help prevent non-work-related software installation on company-issued devices by clearly stating what types of software are allowed or prohibited, and what actions will be taken if users do not comply with the policy.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2471/acceptable-use-policy-aup

SQL injection is a web application attack that involves inserting malicious SQL statements into an input field, such as a web form, to manipulate or access the database behind the application. SQL injection can be used to perform various actions, such as reading, modifying, or deleting data, executing commands on the database server, or bypassing authentication. In this scenario, the attacker is trying to use a SQL statement “SELECT * FROM customername” to retrieve all data from the customername table in the database.

Vishing is a form of phishing that uses voice calls or voice messages to trick victims into revealing personal information, such as credit card numbers, bank details, or passwords. Vishing often uses spoofed phone numbers, voice-altering software, or social engineering techniques to impersonate legitimate organizations or authorities. In this scenario, the caller pretended to be someone who could change the flight plan of an aircraft, which could have caused a serious incident.

the cat command displays the contents of a file, the head command displays the first lines of a file, and the tail command displays the last lines of a file. To display a specific number of lines from a file, you can use a minus sign followed by a number as an option for head or tail. For example, head -10 will display the first 10 lines of a file.

To obtain the next 500 lines starting from line 4,600, you need to use both head and tail commands.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/s y0-601/sy0-601-video/file-manipulation-tools/

User-agent spoofing is a technique that involves changing the user-agent string of a web browser or other client to impersonate another browser or device. The user-agent string is a piece of information that identifies the client to the web server and can contain details such as the browser name, version, operating system, and device type. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on the user-agent string to determine the legitimacy of a request. In this scenario, the consultants were able to spoof the user-agent string of the company’s mobile application and access the API that should have been restricted to it.

SQLi stands for SQL injection, which is a type of web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL statements on a database server. SQLi can result in data theft, data corruption, denial of service, or remote code execution.

The attacker in the web server log is trying to exploit a SQLi vulnerability by sending a malicious GET request that contains a UNION ALL SELECT statement. This statement is used to combine the results of two or more SELECT queries into a single result set. The attacker is attempting to retrieve user login, user pass, and user email from the wp users table, which is a WordPress database table that stores user information. The attacker may use this information to compromise the WordPress site or the users’ accounts.

The administrator should use a round-robin algorithm to split the number of connections on each server in half. Round-robin is a load-balancing algorithm that distributes incoming requests to the available servers one by one in a cyclical order. This helps to evenly distribute the load across all of the servers, ensuring that no single server is overloaded.

The best option to describe where an attacker can purchase DDoS or ransomware services is the dark web. The dark web is an anonymous, untraceable part of the internet where a variety of illicit activities take place, including the purchase of DDoS and ransomware services. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, attackers can purchase these services anonymously and without the risk of detection or attribution. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations monitor the dark web to detect any possible threats or malicious activity.

Wifi Controller

SSID: CORPGUEST

SHARED KEY: Secret

AAA server IP: 192.168.1.20

PSK: Blank

Authentication type: WPA2-EAP-PEAP-MSCHAPv2

Controller IP: 192.168.1.10

Radius Server

Shared Key: Secret

Client IP: 192.168.1.10

Authentication Type: Active Directory

Server IP: 192.168.1.20

Wireless Client

SSID: CORPGUEST

Username: guest01

Userpassword: guestpass

PSK: Blank

Authentication type: WPA2-Enterprise

Impossible travel time is a policy that detects and blocks login attempts from locations that are geographically impossible to reach from the previous login location within a certain time frame. For example, if a user logs in from New York and then tries to log in from Tokyo within an hour, the policy would flag this as impossible travel time and disable the account. This policy helps prevent unauthorized access from compromised credentials or attackers using proxy servers. References: 1 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 6, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.2: Compare and contrast different types of social engineering techniques 2 CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.4: Implement identity and account management controls 3 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/howto-sign-in-risk- policy#impossible-travel

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help reduce the risk of further exfiltration using file storage sites on the internet by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, upload, or download sensitive data to or from file storage sites based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

Containment is the phase where the incident response team tries to isolate and stop the spread of the incident12. Before containing the incident, the team should collect and preserve any evidence that may be useful for analysis and investigation12. This includes documenting the incident details, such as date, time, location, source, and impact12. It also includes establishing a chain of custody, which is a record of who handled the evidence, when, where, how, and why3. A chain of custody ensures the integrity and admissibility of the evidence in court or other legal proceedings3.

A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of the user and sends them to a remote attacker. The attacker can use the keystrokes to steal the user’s credentials, personal information, or other sensitive data. A keylogger can generate packets that contain large amounts of text, as the packet capture data shows.

Tracert is a command-line tool that shows the route that packets take to reach a destination on a network1. It also displays the time it takes for each hop along the way1. By using tracert, you can see if there is a router or firewall that is blocking or slowing down the traffic between the internal workstation and the specific server1.

Patch management is classified as a corrective control because it is used to correct vulnerabilities or weaknesses in systems and applications after they have been identified. It is a reactive approach that aims to fix problems that have already occurred rather than prevent them from happening in the first place.

 User-agent spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to modify the user-agent header of an HTTP request to impersonate another browser or device12. User-agent spoofing can be used to bypass security controls that rely on user-agent filtering or validation12. In this case, the attacker spoofed the user-agent header to match the company’s mobile application, which was allowed to access the back-end server’s API2.

Telnet is an insecure protocol that transmits data in cleartext over the network. This means that anyone who can intercept the network traffic can read the data, including the username and password of the server administrator. A packet capture tool is a software or hardware device that can capture and analyze network packets. An attacker can use a packet capture tool to steal the password and use it to install malicious software on the server. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-network-security

A generator will provide uninterrupted power to the data centers, ensuring that they are not affected by any power disruptions, intentional or otherwise. This is more reliable than a dual supply or a PDU, and more effective than daily backups, which would not be able to protect against an outage lasting an hour.

Containers are a method of virtualization that allow you to run multiple isolated applications on a single server. Containers are lightweight, portable, and scalable, which means they can save resources, improve performance, and simplify deployment. Containers also enable centralized monitoring and management of the applications running on them, using tools such as Docker or Kubernetes. Containers are different from edge computing, which is a distributed computing paradigm that brings computation and data storage closer to the location where it is needed. Microservices are a software architecture style that breaks down complex applications into smaller, independent services that communicate with each other. Thin clients are devices that rely on a server to perform most of the processing tasks and only provide a user interface.

 DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

Based on CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ guide, the answer to the question is A. Identify rogue access points.

To secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities, the corporate security team should focus on identifying rogue access points, which are unauthorized access points that have been set up by employees or outsiders to bypass security controls. By identifying and removing these rogue access points, the team can ensure that only authorized users can access corporate resources through the wireless network.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

Provisioning is the process of creating and setting up IT infrastructure, and includes the steps required to manage user and system access to various resources . Provisioning can be done for servers, cloud environments, users, networks, services, and more .

In this case, the security administrator wants to ensure that all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. This means that the administrator needs to provision the cloud servers with the necessary software and configuration before they are deployed or used by customers or end users. Provisioning can help automate and standardize the process of setting up cloud servers and reduce the risk of human errors or inconsistencies.

Posture checking and remote wipe are two controls that the security engineer should configure to comply with the corporate mobile device policy. Posture checking is a process that verifies if a mobile device meets certain security requirements before allowing it to access corporate resources. For example, posture checking can check if the device OS is patched up to the latest release and if a screen lock is enabled. Remote wipe is a feature that allows the administrator to erase all data from a mobile device remotely, in case it is lost or stolen. This can prevent unauthorized access to corporate data on the device.

A red-team test is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on an organization’s network, systems, applications, and people. The goal of a red-team test is to evaluate the organization’s security posture, identify vulnerabilities and gaps, and test the effectiveness of its detection and response capabilities. A red-team test is usually performed by a group of highly skilled security professionals who act as adversaries and use various tools and techniques to breach the organization’s defenses. A red-team test is often conducted without the knowledge or consent of most of the organization’s staff, except for a few senior executives who authorize and oversee the exercise.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://cybersecurity.att.com/blogs/security-essentials/what-is-red-teaming

PKI is a security technology that enables secure communication between two parties by using cryptographic functions. It consists of a set of components that are used to create, manage, distribute, store, and revoke digital certificates. PKI provides a secure way to exchange data between two parties, as well as a trust provider to ensure that the data is not tampered with. It also helps to create a highly scalable solution, as the same certificate can be used for multiple parties.

According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “PKI is a technology used to secure communications between two external parties. PKI is based on the concept of digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the sender and recipient of a message. PKI provides a trust provider to ensure that the digital certificate is valid and has not been tampered with. It also provides a scalable solution, as multiple parties can use the same certificate.”

Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domains with deliberately misspelled names of well-known websites. The attackers do this to lure unsuspecting visitors to alternative websites, typically for malicious purposes. Visitors may end up at these alternative websites by inadvertently mistyping the name of popular websites into their web browser or by being lured by a phishing scam. The attackers may emulate the look and feel of the legitimate websites and trick users into entering sensitive information or downloading malware.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-typosquatting

Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12.

Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.

Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.

Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi network that looks like a legitimate network, but is designed to capture user data that is sent over the network. In this case, the user's laptop is constantly disconnecting and reconnecting to the Wi-Fi network, indicating that it is connecting to the fake network instead of the legitimate one. Once the user connects to the fake network, they are unable to access shared folders or other network resources, as those are only available on the legitimate network.

SDN stands for software-defined networking, which is an approach to networking that uses software-based controllers or application programming interfaces (APIs) to communicate with underlying hardware infrastructure and direct traffic on a network. SDN decouples the network control plane from the data plane, enabling centralized management and programmability of network resources. SDN can help an engineer use scripting to deploy a network in a cloud environment by allowing them to define and automate network policies, configurations, and services through software commands.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/software-defined-networking/overview.html

A data collector is a person or entity that collects personal data from individuals for a specific purpose. A data collector may or may not be the same as the data controller or the data processor, depending on who determines the purpose and means of processing the data and who actually processes the data.

Reputation damage Short Explanation: Reputation damage is the loss of trust or credibility that a company suffers when its customers’ personal data is exposed or breached. This can lead to customer dissatisfaction, loss of loyalty, and requests to delete user accounts. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-cybersecuri ty

 A certificate issued by an internal CA is not trusted by default by external users or applications. Therefore, when a user tries to reach the application that uses an internal CA certificate, they will receive a warning message that their connection is not private1. The best way to fix this issue is to use a certificate signed by a well-known public CA that is trusted by most browsers and operating systems1. To do this, the security administrator needs to send a certificate signing request (CSR) to a public CA and install the signed certificate on the application’s server2. The other options are not recommended or feasible. Ignoring the warning and continuing to use the application normally is insecure and exposes the user to potential man-in-the-middle attacks3. Installing the certificate on each endpoint that needs to use the application is impractical and cumbersome, especially if there are many users or devices involved3. Sending the new certificate to the users to install on their browsers is also inconvenient and may not work for some browsers or devices3.

References: 1: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure /active-directory/develop/howto-create-self-signed-certificate 2: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/mutual-au thentication-certificate-management 3: https://serverfault.com/questions/1106443/should-i-use-a-public-or-a-internal-ca-for-client-certificate-mtls

MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, which is a solution that can be used to manage and secure personal devices that access company data. MDM can enforce policies and rules, such as password protection, encryption, remote wipe, device lock, application control, and more. MDM can help a company enable BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) while protecting sensitive organizational information.

False rejection Short Explanation: A false rejection occurs when a biometric system fails to recognize an authorized user and denies access. This can happen due to poor quality of the biometric sample, environmental factors, or system errors. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/wh at-is-biometrics

The scenario describes preventive controls, which are designed to stop malicious actors from gaining access to the organization's servers. This includes using multiple access points, such as a lobby, an access control vestibule, and multiple doors leading to the server floor, as well as caging the organization's hardware. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 document, preventive controls are "designed to stop malicious actors from performing a malicious activity or gaining access to an asset." These controls can include technical solutions, such as authentication and access control systems, physical security solutions, such as locks and barriers, and administrative solutions such as policy enforcement.

Directory traversal is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application or a file system to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope. The attacker can use special characters, such as …/ or …\ , to navigate through the directory structure and access restricted files or directories.

 ARO stands for annualized rate of occurrence, which is a metric that estimates how often a threat event will occur within a year. ARO can help an IT manager estimate the mobile device budget for the upcoming year by multiplying the number of devices replaced in the previous year by the percentage increase of replacement over the last five years. For example, if 100 devices were replaced in the previous year and the replacement rate increased by 10% each year for the last five years, then the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year is 100 x (1 + 0.1)^5 = 161.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24866/annualized-rate-of-occurrence-aro

Non-PII stands for non-personally identifiable information, which is any data that does not directly identify a specific individual. Non-PII can include information such as job title, business phone number, location, first initial with last name, and race. Non-PII can be used for various purposes, such as statistical analysis, marketing, or research. However, non-PII may still pose some privacy risks if it is combined or linked with other data that can reveal an individual’s identity.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.investopedia.com/terms/n/non-personally-identifiable-information-npii.asp

NIC Teaming is a feature that allows a server to be connected to multiple network switches, providing redundancy and increased network availability. If one of the switches goes down, the server will still be able to send and receive data through one of the other switches. To configure NIC Teaming in Windows Server, see Microsoft's documentation: https://docs.microso ft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming. For more information on NIC Teaming and other network redundancy features, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

EDR solutions are designed to detect and respond to malicious activity on workstations and servers, and they provide a detailed analysis of the incident, allowing organizations to quickly remediate the threat. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, EDR solutions can be used to detect malicious activity on endpoints, investigate the incident, and contain the threat. EDR solutions can also provide real-time monitoring and alerting for potential security events, as well as detailed forensic analysis for security incidents. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations also implement a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) to alert them to malicious activity on their workstations and servers.

After the root cause of a security incident has been identified, it is important to take the time to analyze what went wrong and how it could have been prevented. This process is known as “lessons learned” and allows organizations to identify potential improvements to their security processes and protocols. Lessons learned typically involve a review of the incident and the steps taken to address it, a review of the security systems and procedures in place, and an analysis of any potential changes that can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

A standard naming convention policy would provide guidelines on how to label new network devices as part of the initial configuration. A standard naming convention policy is a document that defines the rules and formats for naming network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, or printers. A standard naming convention policy can help an organization achieve consistency, clarity, and efficiency in network management and administration.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Network_Virtualization/PathIsolationDesignGuide/PathIsolationDesignGuide.pdf

Compensating controls are additional security measures that are implemented to reduce the risk of non-compliant controls. They do not fix the underlying issue, but they provide an alternative way of achieving the same security objective. For example, if a system does not have encryption, a compensating control could be to restrict access to the system or use a secure network connection.

Disabling remote logins to the NAS likely involved turning off SSH instead of modifying the configuration file. This would prevent users from using SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Source: TechTarget